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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. What is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?
- A. Dehydration
- B. Urinary incontinence
- C. Poor nutrition
- D. Poor tissue perfusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries due to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants. Dehydration (choice A) can contribute to skin dryness but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries. Poor nutrition (choice C) can affect wound healing but is not specifically linked to pressure injuries. Poor tissue perfusion (choice D) can increase the risk of tissue damage but is not as directly associated with pressure injuries as urinary incontinence.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has Parkinson's disease. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Pruritus
- B. Hypertension
- C. Bradykinesia
- D. Xerostomia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradykinesia. Bradykinesia, which refers to slowness of movement, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease. Other common manifestations in Parkinson's disease include tremors, muscle rigidity, orthostatic hypotension, and drooling. Pruritus (choice A) is unrelated to Parkinson's disease. While hypertension (choice B) can coexist with Parkinson's disease due to autonomic dysfunction, it is not a specific hallmark manifestation. Xerostomia (choice D) is not a primary symptom associated with Parkinson's disease.
3. While providing education about the use of lorazepam, which of the following should be included?
- A. It can cause dependency
- B. It can be taken with alcohol
- C. It has no side effects
- D. It is a stimulant
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause dependency.' Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine known to cause dependency, so it is crucial for clients to be informed about this potential risk. Choice B is incorrect as combining lorazepam with alcohol can lead to increased sedation and other adverse effects. Choice C is incorrect because lorazepam, like any medication, can have side effects such as drowsiness, dizziness, or confusion. Choice D is also incorrect as lorazepam is a sedative-hypnotic medication, not a stimulant.
4. A nurse enters a patient's room and finds the client pulseless. The living will requests no resuscitation be performed, but the provider has not written the prescription. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the family.
- B. Begin CPR.
- C. Await further instructions from the provider.
- D. Document the event.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to begin CPR. Even though the living will requests no resuscitation, without a written do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order from the provider, the nurse is ethically and legally bound to initiate CPR to provide life-saving measures until further confirmation is obtained. Notifying the family (Choice A) may cause a delay in providing immediate care. Waiting for further instructions (Choice C) can be time-consuming and compromise patient outcomes. Documenting the event (Choice D) is important but should follow after initiating CPR to ensure patient safety and adherence to protocols.
5. A client is being treated with thiazide diuretics. What should the nurse monitor regularly?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics are known to cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion in the urine. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly linked with thiazide diuretics due to increased sodium excretion. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a usual concern when a client is receiving thiazide diuretics.
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