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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. What is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?
- A. Dehydration
- B. Urinary incontinence
- C. Poor nutrition
- D. Poor tissue perfusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries due to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants. Dehydration (choice A) can contribute to skin dryness but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries. Poor nutrition (choice C) can affect wound healing but is not specifically linked to pressure injuries. Poor tissue perfusion (choice D) can increase the risk of tissue damage but is not as directly associated with pressure injuries as urinary incontinence.
2. A client is found on the floor of their room experiencing a seizure. Which action is the nurse's priority?
- A. Restrain the client
- B. Place the client on their side with their head forward
- C. Perform a neurological assessment
- D. Monitor the client's vitals every 2 minutes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client on their side with their head forward. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of fluids or secretions. Restraint should never be used during a seizure as it can cause harm to the client. Performing a neurological assessment is important but not the immediate priority during an active seizure. While monitoring vitals is essential, ensuring the client's airway is clear takes precedence.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who is postop following abdominal surgery. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse identify as increasing the client's risk for complications?
- A. Walking twice daily
- B. Suppression of the urge to cough
- C. Suppression of the urge to defecate
- D. Lack of ambulation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Suppression of the urge to defecate postoperatively can lead to complications such as constipation, which can increase the risk of complications after abdominal surgery. Walking twice daily (choice A) is actually beneficial for preventing complications such as deep vein thrombosis. Suppression of the urge to cough (choice B) can lead to issues like atelectasis. Lack of ambulation (choice D) can also contribute to complications like pneumonia and blood clots.
4. A client is receiving morphine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function
- B. Respiratory rate
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Bowel sounds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving morphine, monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial because morphine can cause respiratory depression. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because morphine primarily affects the respiratory system, not the liver function, blood glucose levels, or bowel sounds.
5. A client is being taught about the use of digoxin. Which of the following should be included?
- A. Monitor for low blood pressure
- B. It can cause bradycardia
- C. Take it with calcium supplements
- D. It has no side effects
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It can cause bradycardia.' Digoxin can cause bradycardia as one of its side effects. Clients should be educated about this potential effect and instructed to monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin is more likely to cause arrhythmias than low blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as calcium supplements can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Choice D is incorrect as digoxin has various side effects, and clients should be aware of them.
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