pn ati capstone adult medical surgical 1 quiz PN ATI Capstone Adult Medical-Surgical 1 Quiz - Nursing Elites
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PN ATI Capstone Adult Medical-Surgical 1 Quiz

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a positive Kernig’s sign?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive Kernig’s sign is identified when a client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain after hip flexion. This finding indicates meningeal irritation. Choices A, C, and D do not describe Kernig’s sign. Choice A describes a normal plantar reflex, choice C refers to coordination issues, and choice D describes neck pain and stiffness, which are not specific to Kernig’s sign.

2. A client with Ménière’s disease is experiencing episodes of vertigo. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Ménière’s disease experiencing vertigo is to provide a low sodium diet. Limiting sodium helps to reduce fluid retention, which in turn decreases the manifestations of Ménière’s disease. Encouraging bed rest (Choice A) may be necessary during acute episodes but is not a long-term solution. Restricting fluid intake (Choice B) to the morning hours does not specifically address the underlying issue of fluid retention associated with Ménière’s disease. Administering aspirin (Choice C) is not recommended for Ménière’s disease as it can worsen symptoms.

3. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for osteoporosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Early menopause. A client who goes into early menopause, from natural or surgical causes, is at greater risk for developing osteoporosis due to the rapid drop in estrogen levels. Choice B, history of falls, is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis but can lead to fractures in individuals with osteoporosis. Choice C, African American race, is actually associated with a lower risk of osteoporosis compared to Caucasian or Asian descent. Choice D, obesity, is generally considered a protective factor against osteoporosis due to the increased mechanical loading on bones.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who reports a possible exposure to HIV. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an early manifestation of HIV infection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fatigue. A client with early HIV infection can be asymptomatic or experience symptoms like viral infections, such as fever, rash, and fatigue. Fatigue is a common early manifestation of HIV infection due to the body's immune response. Stomatitis (choice A) is more commonly associated with oral health issues or infections. Wasting syndrome (choice C) and lipodystrophy (choice D) are more advanced manifestations seen in later stages of HIV infection, characterized by severe weight loss and changes in body fat distribution, respectively.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.

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