Free ATI LPN Capstone practice for PN ATI Capstone Adult Medical-Surgical 1 Quiz (ATI LPN). Answer 40 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, a
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be placed in halo traction following surgical repair of the cervical spine. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor the client's skin under the halo vest. This is important to assess for signs of skin issues such as excessive sweating, redness, or blistering, which can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice A is incorrect because inspecting the pin site every 4 hours is necessary but not the priority in this case. Choice C is incorrect as it is not essential for two personnel to hold the halo device during repositioning. Choice D is incorrect because applying powder frequently can actually increase the risk of skin issues by clogging pores and causing irritation.
A nurse is teaching a client about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening of colorectal cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid corticosteroids and vitamin C prior to testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect because stool samples from bowel movements, not from digital rectal examinations, are used for FOBT. Choice B is incorrect because a stimulant laxative is not typically prescribed before FOBT; rather, the client is instructed to follow specific dietary restrictions. Choice C is incorrect because biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening usually begins at 50 years old, not 40.
A client with burn injuries covering their upper body is concerned about their altered appearance. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should encourage the client to attend a support group for individuals with burn injuries. Support groups can provide emotional support, promote acceptance of altered appearance, and help the client cope with the changes. Choice A is incorrect because it may not address the client's emotional needs. Choice B is incorrect as suggesting a timeline for cosmetic surgery may not be appropriate without considering the client's physical and emotional readiness. Choice C is incorrect as reconstructive surgery may not completely restore the client's previous appearance and may set unrealistic expectations.
A client scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. During an electroencephalogram (EEG), flashes of light or patterns are often used to stimulate the brain and provoke responses, helping to assess brain activity and the potential for seizures. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because washing the hair, receiving a sedative, and refraining from eating are not usually related to EEG procedures and do not reflect understanding of the teaching provided by the nurse.
A client is to undergo a liver biopsy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client following the procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Following a liver biopsy, the nurse should instruct the client to lie on the right side to promote hemostasis. This position helps apply pressure to the biopsy site, reducing the risk of bleeding. Instructing the client to lie on the left side (Choice A) would not provide the same benefit. Increasing fluid intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial post-procedure to prevent dehydration and promote healing. Decreasing fluid intake (Choice D) is not advisable as it can lead to dehydration and potential complications.
A nurse is assessing a client who reports a possible exposure to HIV. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an early manifestation of HIV infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Fatigue. A client with early HIV infection can be asymptomatic or experience symptoms like viral infections, such as fever, rash, and fatigue. Fatigue is a common early manifestation of HIV infection due to the body's immune response. Stomatitis (choice A) is more commonly associated with oral health issues or infections. Wasting syndrome (choice C) and lipodystrophy (choice D) are more advanced manifestations seen in later stages of HIV infection, characterized by severe weight loss and changes in body fat distribution, respectively.
A nurse is planning care for a group of postoperative clients. Which of the following interventions should the nurse identify as the priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When using the ABC approach to client care, the nurse should identify that the priority intervention is administering oxygen. In this scenario, the client's oxygen saturation is only 91%, which is below the normal range of 95% and above. Oxygen is essential for adequate tissue perfusion and oxygenation of vital organs. Administering oxygen takes precedence over other interventions to ensure the client's physiological needs are met first. Choice A can be addressed after ensuring adequate oxygenation. Choice C is important for preventing postoperative complications but is not as urgent as addressing oxygen saturation. Choice D is a common postoperative intervention, but in this case, ensuring adequate oxygenation is the priority over IV fluid administration.
A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider plan to administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client presents with bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain, indicating reduced cardiac output. Atropine is the appropriate choice as it increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, Adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia, and Verapamil for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. These medications are not suitable for the client's current presentation.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a heart transplant. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because shortness of breath is an indication of transplant rejection, along with other manifestations like fatigue, edema, bradycardia, and hypotension. Choice A is incorrect because immunosuppressant medications are usually taken for life to prevent rejection. Choice C is incorrect as the surgical site may take longer to heal fully. Choice D is incorrect as the initiation of exercise post-heart transplant should be gradual and individualized based on the client's condition.
A client is at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to increase in their diet?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, which can help prevent or address iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A) and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. While apples (Choice B) are a healthy fruit, they do not contain as much iron as raisins.
A nurse is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, Propofol. Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic medication commonly used to induce moderate sedation for procedures like a colonoscopy. This medication provides rapid onset and recovery, making it an ideal choice for such procedures. Choice B, Pancuronium, is a neuromuscular blocking agent used for muscle relaxation during surgery and would not be appropriate for sedation during a colonoscopy. Choice C, Promethazine, is an antihistamine used for nausea and motion sickness, not for anesthesia. Choice D, Pentoxifylline, is a medication used to improve blood flow in patients with circulation problems and is not indicated for anesthesia during a colonoscopy.
A nurse is teaching a group of assistive personnel (AP) about caring for clients with Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because clients with Alzheimer's disease can be prone to wandering and getting lost. Providing supervision can help prevent injuries and ensure their safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because explaining procedures clearly, encouraging varied activities, and using simple communication are important but not specifically focused on the safety aspect of preventing clients from getting lost or injured.
A home health nurse is providing teaching to the family of a client who has a seizure disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients who have seizures are at risk for injury and aspiration. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the family to position the client on their side during a seizure to maintain a clear airway. Placing a padded tongue depressor near the bedside (Choice A) is not recommended, as it can lead to oral injury during a seizure. Placing a pillow under the client's head (Choice B) can obstruct the airway and increase the risk of aspiration. Administering diazepam orally (Choice C) is not typically done by family members during a seizure; this is usually prescribed by healthcare providers for specific situations.
A client newly diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is being taught by a nurse. Which statement indicates that the client understands the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: "I can expect swelling in my hands and on my face." Nephrotic syndrome leads to increased permeability of the glomeruli, resulting in edema, especially in the face and dependent areas. Choice B is incorrect because nephrotic syndrome leads to protein loss in the urine, not an increase in blood protein levels. Choice C is incorrect as stomach pain and gas are not typical symptoms of nephrotic syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the teaching about nephrotic syndrome and gum bleeding.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled for electromyography (EMG). Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. During an electromyography (EMG) procedure, small needle electrodes are inserted into the muscles to identify muscle weakness and evaluate local nerve responses. This information is crucial for the client to know beforehand. Choice A is incorrect because radioisotopes are not used in EMG procedures. Choice B is incorrect because flushing is not a common occurrence during EMG. Choice C is incorrect because claustrophobia is more relevant to MRI or CT scans, not EMG procedures.
A client with a permanent spinal cord injury is scheduled for discharge. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client is coping effectively?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice A is the correct answer. This statement demonstrates effective coping as the client is showing acceptance of their disability and planning for the future with realistic goals. Choice B reflects denial of the permanent disability by stating that they will only be in a wheelchair temporarily. Choice C shows distress and a lack of acceptance by questioning why the injury happened and why they are not improving. Choice D indicates feelings of hopelessness and being a burden, which are not signs of effective coping.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: "Increase intake of high-potassium foods." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. To prevent this adverse effect, the client should increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide typically leads to decreased blood pressure, not increased. Choice C is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because the second dose of furosemide should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia.
A nurse is administering a blood transfusion to a client and suspects that the client is having an adverse reaction to the blood. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to stop the transfusion. When a nurse suspects an adverse reaction to a blood transfusion, the priority is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent further harm to the client. Maintaining IV access and obtaining vital signs can be important steps but should come after stopping the transfusion to ensure the client's safety. Contacting the provider is necessary but not the first action to take in this situation. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize stopping the transfusion to address the potential adverse reaction.
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is taking prednisone. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Hypertension. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to hypertension as an adverse effect. Prednisone can cause sodium and water retention, leading to increased blood pressure. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Weight loss is not typically associated with prednisone use; instead, weight gain is more common. Hypoglycemia is not a common adverse effect of prednisone; in fact, it can elevate blood sugar levels. Hyperkalemia is also not a typical adverse effect of prednisone; instead, it can cause hypokalemia, or low potassium levels.
A client with GERD is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Limiting activities that require bending at the waist can help prevent episodes of reflux in clients with GERD. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking medicine with orange juice may not be appropriate as citrus juices can aggravate GERD. Having a bedtime snack can exacerbate heartburn by increasing stomach acid production, and lying down after meals can worsen symptoms of GERD by allowing stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus.
A nurse at a provider's office is interviewing a client who has multiple sclerosis and has been taking dantrolene for several months. Which of the following client statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: "I don't have muscle spasms as frequently." The nurse should identify that dantrolene relaxes skeletal muscles, so a decrease in muscle spasms indicates the medication is effective. Choice B is incorrect as cold prevention is not related to dantrolene. Choice C is incorrect because nerve pain improvement is not a direct effect of dantrolene. Choice D is incorrect as dantrolene's action does not affect urination.
A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Low fat diet.' A client with chronic cholecystitis should follow a low-fat diet to decrease the frequency of biliary colic episodes. Fats can trigger the release of cholecystokinin, which stimulates the gallbladder to contract, potentially causing pain in individuals with cholecystitis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A low potassium diet is prescribed for individuals with specific kidney conditions or on certain medications. A high fiber diet is beneficial for conditions like constipation, diverticulosis, or to promote general bowel health. A low sodium diet is often recommended for conditions like hypertension or heart failure to reduce fluid retention.
A nurse is caring for a client who is hyperventilating and has the following ABG results: pH 7.50, PaCO2 29 mm Hg, and HCO3- 25 mEq/L. The nurse should recognize that the client has which of the following acid-base imbalances?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Respiratory alkalosis. In this scenario, the client is hyperventilating, leading to excessive elimination of carbon dioxide. As a result, the PaCO2 decreases, causing a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration and an increase in pH, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. Choice A, Respiratory acidosis, is incorrect because the ABG results show a low PaCO2, not an elevated one. Choices C and D, Metabolic acidosis and Metabolic alkalosis, do not align with the ABG results provided, which point towards a respiratory, not metabolic, imbalance.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has COPD about nutrition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Consume high-calorie, high-protein foods.' Clients with COPD often have increased energy needs due to the work of breathing. Consuming high-calorie, high-protein foods can help provide the necessary energy and prevent weight loss. Choice A is incorrect because eating three large meals daily may lead to increased shortness of breath due to a full stomach. Choice C is incorrect because limiting caffeinated drinks is important, but the recommendation should focus on reducing intake, not specifying a number. Choice D is incorrect because drinking fluids during mealtime can lead to early satiety, making it difficult for the client to consume enough calories.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is starting to take carbidopa/levodopa to treat Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction the nurse should provide is that the medication can cause the client's urine to turn a dark color, which is a harmless effect of carbidopa/levodopa. This is due to the metabolites of levodopa. Immediate relief is not expected after taking the medication because it may take weeks to months to achieve the full therapeutic effect. Taking the medication with a high-protein food is not recommended as protein can interfere with the absorption of levodopa. Skipping a dose of the medication if the client experiences dizziness is incorrect as dizziness may be a side effect of the medication, and doses should not be skipped without consulting a healthcare provider.
A nurse is teaching a client about using a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device to treat obstructive sleep apnea. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct information that the nurse should include in the teaching about a CPAP device is that it delivers a preset amount of airway pressure throughout the breathing cycle. This consistent positive airway pressure helps keep the airway open during both inspiration and expiration. Choice A is incorrect as CPAP does not deliver pressure only at the beginning of each breath. Choice B is incorrect because CPAP provides a constant level of pressure without continuous adjustments throughout the cycle. Choice D is incorrect as CPAP does not provide positive pressure at the end of each breath; instead, it maintains a continuous positive pressure.
A client with type 1 DM is being taught about hypoglycemia by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because the client should have a quick-acting source of 15 g of carbohydrates to treat hypoglycemic episodes, such as 4 oz of regular soda. Choice A is incorrect because while exercise can help manage blood sugar levels, it can also increase the risk of hypoglycemia if not properly managed. Choice B is incorrect as skipping insulin when not eating can lead to hyperglycemia, not prevent hypoglycemia. Choice D is incorrect because certain oral diabetic medications can indeed cause hypoglycemia, not just insulin.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A sodium level of 122 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is characterized by decreased deep tendon reflexes. Hyponatremia leads to neurological symptoms such as altered reflexes. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with hyponatremia. Positive Trousseau's sign is related to hypocalcemia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be seen in paralytic ileus or decreased peristalsis, and sticky mucous membranes are not specific findings related to sodium imbalances.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. The circumference of the upper arm above the insertion site of the PICC should be measured at the time of insertion and then again during assessments. An increase in circumference could indicate deep vein thrombosis, which could be life-threatening. Choice A is not a concern as changing the dressing 7 days ago is within the recommended timeframe. Choice C is not alarming as the catheter not being used for 8 hours does not necessarily indicate a problem. Choice D indicates proper catheter care by flushing it with sterile saline after medication use, so it does not require provider notification.
A client has been diagnosed with tuberculosis. Which of the following precautions should the nurse initiate to prevent transmission of the disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tuberculosis is spread through small droplets, measuring less than 5 microns, which can remain airborne for extended periods. The nurse should place a client with TB under airborne precautions to prevent the transmission of the disease. Choice A, contact precautions, are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice C, droplet precautions, are for diseases transmitted by large droplets. Choice D, protective environment, is used for clients who have compromised immune systems.
A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a positive Kernig's sign?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A positive Kernig's sign is identified when a client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain after hip flexion. This finding indicates meningeal irritation. Choices A, C, and D do not describe Kernig's sign. Choice A describes a normal plantar reflex, choice C refers to coordination issues, and choice D describes neck pain and stiffness, which are not specific to Kernig's sign.
A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following diets should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with chronic kidney disease often have difficulty regulating potassium levels in their blood. A potassium-restricted diet helps prevent hyperkalemia, a common complication in these clients. High sodium diet (Choice A) is typically avoided in kidney disease to prevent fluid retention and high blood pressure. High phosphorus diet (Choice C) is usually restricted in kidney disease as elevated phosphorus levels can lead to bone and heart problems. While protein is important for overall health, a high protein diet (Choice D) can put extra strain on the kidneys and is usually limited in chronic kidney disease.
A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. The client has a peripheral IV and has a prescription for an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL with 40 mEq potassium chloride to infuse over 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority action is to verify the prescription with the provider. Verifying the prescription ensures patient safety by preventing fluid volume overload and dysrhythmias, which can result from infusing potassium too rapidly. Teaching the client about IV extravasation, evaluating IV patency, and consulting with the pharmacist are important but should come after verifying the prescription to ensure the ordered treatment is appropriate and safe for the client's condition.
A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for osteoporosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Early menopause. A client who goes into early menopause, from natural or surgical causes, is at greater risk for developing osteoporosis due to the rapid drop in estrogen levels. Choice B, history of falls, is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis but can lead to fractures in individuals with osteoporosis. Choice C, African American race, is actually associated with a lower risk of osteoporosis compared to Caucasian or Asian descent. Choice D, obesity, is generally considered a protective factor against osteoporosis due to the increased mechanical loading on bones.
A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension about dietary modifications to help control blood pressure. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend as the best choice for the client to include in their diet?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A low sodium diet is recommended for a client who has hypertension. Therefore, the nurse should recommend 3 oz of chicken breast as the best choice for the client's diet because it contains 30 – 90 mg of sodium. Choice A, 1 packet of reconstituted dry onion soup, and Choice B, 3 oz of lean cured ham, are high in sodium content, which is not suitable for a client with hypertension. Choice D, 1/2 cup of canned baked beans, is also high in sodium, making it a less suitable choice compared to 3 oz of chicken breast.
A nurse is caring for a client who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Keeping the client's neck in a midline position is essential when caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) as it helps promote optimal blood flow and reduces the risk of further increasing ICP. Placing pillows behind the client's head (Choice A) may not be recommended as it could potentially increase ICP. Putting the client in a Sims' position (Choice B) and maintaining hip flexion at a 90° angle (Choice D) are not directly related to managing increased ICP and are not the priority interventions in this situation.
A client with Ménière's disease is experiencing episodes of vertigo. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client with Ménière's disease experiencing vertigo is to provide a low sodium diet. Limiting sodium helps to reduce fluid retention, which in turn decreases the manifestations of Ménière's disease. Encouraging bed rest (Choice A) may be necessary during acute episodes but is not a long-term solution. Restricting fluid intake (Choice B) to the morning hours does not specifically address the underlying issue of fluid retention associated with Ménière's disease. Administering aspirin (Choice C) is not recommended for Ménière's disease as it can worsen symptoms.
While reviewing the medical record of a client with unstable angina, which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. The nurse should report these vital signs to the provider immediately as they indicate increased temperature, tachycardia, and tachypnea, which are signs of possible infection or systemic inflammatory response. This could exacerbate the client's unstable angina and needs prompt evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are not as urgent as the vital signs in option A and do not directly indicate a worsening condition in the context of unstable angina.
A nurse is admitting a client who has suspected appendicitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A distended, board-like abdomen is a concerning sign indicating the possibility of a ruptured appendix and peritonitis, which are medical emergencies. Reporting this finding immediately is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, an elevated WBC count, could indicate infection but is not as urgent as the risk of a ruptured appendix. Choice C, rebound tenderness over McBurney's point, is a classic sign of appendicitis but does not indicate an immediate threat like a possible rupture. Choice D, a slightly elevated temperature, is a nonspecific finding and not as critical as the risk of peritonitis associated with a distended, board-like abdomen.
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