pn ati capstone adult medical surgical 1 quiz PN ATI Capstone Adult Medical-Surgical 1 Quiz - Nursing Elites
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PN ATI Capstone Adult Medical-Surgical 1 Quiz

1. A home health nurse is providing teaching to the family of a client who has a seizure disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients who have seizures are at risk for injury and aspiration. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the family to position the client on their side during a seizure to maintain a clear airway. Placing a padded tongue depressor near the bedside (Choice A) is not recommended, as it can lead to oral injury during a seizure. Placing a pillow under the client’s head (Choice B) can obstruct the airway and increase the risk of aspiration. Administering diazepam orally (Choice C) is not typically done by family members during a seizure; this is usually prescribed by healthcare providers for specific situations.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider plan to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client presents with bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain, indicating reduced cardiac output. Atropine is the appropriate choice as it increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, Adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia, and Verapamil for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. These medications are not suitable for the client's current presentation.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension about dietary modifications to help control blood pressure. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend as the best choice for the client to include in their diet?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A low sodium diet is recommended for a client who has hypertension. Therefore, the nurse should recommend 3 oz of chicken breast as the best choice for the client's diet because it contains 30 – 90 mg of sodium. Choice A, 1 packet of reconstituted dry onion soup, and Choice B, 3 oz of lean cured ham, are high in sodium content, which is not suitable for a client with hypertension. Choice D, 1/2 cup of canned baked beans, is also high in sodium, making it a less suitable choice compared to 3 oz of chicken breast.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Increase intake of high-potassium foods." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. To prevent this adverse effect, the client should increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide typically leads to decreased blood pressure, not increased. Choice C is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because the second dose of furosemide should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia.

5. A client newly diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is being taught by a nurse. Which statement indicates that the client understands the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: “I can expect swelling in my hands and on my face.” Nephrotic syndrome leads to increased permeability of the glomeruli, resulting in edema, especially in the face and dependent areas. Choice B is incorrect because nephrotic syndrome leads to protein loss in the urine, not an increase in blood protein levels. Choice C is incorrect as stomach pain and gas are not typical symptoms of nephrotic syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the teaching about nephrotic syndrome and gum bleeding.

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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