Free Medical Surgical Nursing practice for ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019 (ATI LPN). Answer 63 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and
A 56-year-old woman presents to discuss the results of her recent upper endoscopy. She was having some mild abdominal pain, so she underwent the procedure, which revealed an ulcer in the antrum of the stomach. Biopsy of the lesion revealed the presence of H. pylori. All of the following statements regarding her condition are correct except
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
H. pylori is associated with a majority of peptic ulcer disease cases and has links to gastric MALT and adenocarcinoma. Triple drug therapy is more effective than dual therapy. Reinfection after adequate treatment is rare. While urea breath testing is a better diagnostic tool, quantitative serology can monitor treatment efficacy. A 30% decrease in IgG titer should occur post-therapy, indicating effectiveness.
A healthcare professional is educating a group of recent nursing graduates about their risks for contracting hepatitis B. What preventative measure should the professional promote?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct preventative measure to promote for preventing hepatitis B infection is immunization. Healthcare workers, including nurses, are at risk of exposure to hepatitis B, and vaccination is crucial in preventing infection. Immunization, along with adherence to standard precautions such as using personal protective equipment, proper hand hygiene, and safe needle practices, plays a vital role in protecting healthcare workers from contracting hepatitis B.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate is the appropriate intervention for clients with COPD receiving oxygen therapy. High flow rates can lead to respiratory depression in COPD patients. This intervention helps maintain a safe and controlled oxygen delivery to prevent potential complications associated with high oxygen flow rates.
A patient with anemia is prescribed ferrous sulfate. What advice should the nurse give regarding the administration of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct advice for the administration of ferrous sulfate is to take it on an empty stomach for best absorption. This enhances the absorption of iron. If gastrointestinal upset occurs, the medication can be taken with food. Taking ferrous sulfate with dairy products is not recommended as calcium can inhibit iron absorption. Taking it before bedtime is also not recommended. Vitamin C can actually help with the absorption of iron and is often recommended to be taken alongside iron supplements to enhance absorption. Therefore, avoiding vitamin C while taking ferrous sulfate is not correct.
While assessing a client with preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate, the nurse notes her deep tendon reflexes are 1+, respiratory rate is 12 breaths/minute, urinary output is 90 ml in 4 hours, and magnesium sulfate level is 9 mg/dl. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these findings?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately in a client with preeclampsia exhibiting diminished reflexes, respiratory depression, and low urinary output, which indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. This action is crucial to prevent further complications and adverse effects on the client.
The patient described in the preceding questions has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. A positive serum IgG may persist indefinitely and cannot alone determine the failure of eradication. However, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been used to confirm treatment success. The urease breath test is recommended to assess the failure of eradication as it can detect the presence of H. pylori in the stomach, indicating treatment failure if positive.
The patient described in the preceding question has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. The serum IgG may remain positive indefinitely and cannot be used to determine failure of eradication; however, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been utilized to indicate treatment success. If available, either the stool antigen or urease breath test is ideal to document treatment failure due to their high sensitivity, specificity, and ease of performance. The relationship between dyspepsia and H. pylori is controversial, but generally, dyspepsia does not typically improve with H. pylori eradication.
A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid) is to take the medication on an empty stomach. This ensures optimal absorption of levothyroxine. Taking it with a meal can interfere with absorption due to food interactions. Taking it at bedtime may lead to inconsistent absorption as it should be taken at the same time every day in the morning. Taking it with an antacid can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, making it less effective.
A highly successful individual presents to the community mental health center complaining of sleeplessness and anxiety over their financial status. What action should the nurse take to assist this client in diminishing their anxiety?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Teaching the individual to limit sugar and caffeine intake is an appropriate intervention to reduce anxiety and improve sleep quality. Sugar and caffeine can exacerbate anxiety symptoms and disrupt sleep patterns. By reducing their intake, the individual may experience a decrease in anxiety levels and better sleep. Encouraging daily rituals, reinforcing financial realities, or suggesting alcohol consumption before bed are not evidence-based strategies for managing anxiety and sleeplessness.
A patient with depression is prescribed fluoxetine. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient with depression is prescribed fluoxetine, the nurse should be vigilant for the potential side effect of increased risk of suicidal thoughts. Fluoxetine, like other antidepressants, may elevate the risk of suicidal thoughts, particularly during the initial phases of treatment. Monitoring the patient for any indications of heightened depression or suicidal ideation is crucial to ensure appropriate interventions are implemented promptly.
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed calcium acetate. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The primary purpose of prescribing calcium acetate to a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is to reduce phosphate levels. Calcium acetate binds to dietary phosphate, preventing its absorption and helping to manage hyperphosphatemia commonly seen in CKD patients.
The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with myasthenia gravis commonly experience muscle weakness, including in the muscles used for coughing. This diminished cough effort can lead to ineffective airway clearance, increasing the risk of respiratory complications. Therefore, the most likely cause for the nursing diagnosis 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' in a client with myasthenia gravis is the diminished cough effort due to muscle weakness.
An elderly male client reports to the clinic nurse that he is experiencing increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating his urine stream. He reports a weak urine flow and frequent dribbling after voiding. Which nursing action should be implemented?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the client to schedule a digital rectal exam is the most appropriate nursing action in this situation. This exam can help evaluate for potential prostate enlargement or other issues contributing to the urinary symptoms described by the client. It is important to assess the prostate gland for any abnormalities that may be causing the urinary issues reported by the client.
A client with cirrhosis of the liver is being cared for by the healthcare team. Which clinical manifestation indicates that the client has developed hepatic encephalopathy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Asterixis, also known as flapping tremor, is a characteristic sign of hepatic encephalopathy, a severe complication of liver cirrhosis. Hepatic encephalopathy results from the liver's inability to detoxify substances in the body, leading to neurologic manifestations such as changes in mental status, confusion, and asterixis.
A client with a severe head injury is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU). Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An Intracranial Pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg is at the upper limit of normal and may indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is a critical finding in a client with a severe head injury. Elevated ICP can lead to further brain damage and must be addressed promptly to prevent complications such as herniation. Monitoring and managing ICP are crucial in the care of patients with head injuries in the ICU.
A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The clinical presentation of a 30-year-old woman with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria is highly suggestive of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to insulin deficiency and subsequent hyperglycemia. The presence of ketonuria indicates the breakdown of fats for energy due to the lack of insulin. In contrast, type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents with gradual onset and is often associated with insulin resistance rather than absolute insulin deficiency. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria and polydipsia but is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism may present with symptoms like fatigue but does not typically cause hyperglycemia or ketonuria.
A client with long-standing obesity has been prescribed phentermine/topiramate-ER. What statement by the client suggests that further health education is necessary?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice A suggests the need for further health education as the client expresses a reluctance to exercise or change dietary habits, indicating a lack of understanding about the importance of lifestyle modifications in conjunction with medication for effective weight management. It is important for the client to comprehend that a holistic approach, including lifestyle changes, is crucial for successful obesity treatment and long-term health benefits.
A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain is to place the tablet under the tongue. This route allows for rapid absorption of the medication, providing quick relief for chest pain associated with myocardial infarction.
A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). What is the priority nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing action for a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is to administer regular insulin intravenously. Insulin helps to lower blood glucose levels and correct acidosis, which are critical in managing DKA. Administering oral hypoglycemic agents is not appropriate in the acute setting of DKA as they may not work quickly enough compared to intravenous insulin. While sodium bicarbonate may be used to correct acidosis, insulin administration is the priority to address both hyperglycemia and acidosis simultaneously. Providing a high-calorie diet is not suitable initially in DKA management; the main focus is on stabilizing the patient's condition through insulin therapy and fluid/electrolyte correction.
When creating a care plan for a 70-year-old obese client admitted to the postsurgical unit following a colon resection, the client's age and increased body mass index put them at increased risk for which complication in the postoperative period?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Infection is a significant risk in obese, elderly clients due to decreased immunity and increased healing time, making them more susceptible to postoperative infections. Proper infection prevention measures should be a priority in the care plan for this client to minimize this risk.
The client has acute kidney injury (AKI). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An elevated serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L in a client with AKI can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias, necessitating immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia is a serious complication in AKI as impaired kidney function can result in the accumulation of potassium in the blood, posing a risk of cardiac arrest. Prompt treatment to lower potassium levels is crucial to prevent cardiac complications in this situation.
Why is a low-protein diet recommended for a client with hepatic encephalopathy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A low-protein diet is recommended for clients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia levels. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, can accumulate in the blood due to impaired liver function. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to worsening hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by cognitive and neurological disturbances. Therefore, by limiting protein intake, the production of ammonia is reduced, thereby helping to manage hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hepatic encephalopathy is not primarily related to hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, or electrolyte imbalance. The focus is on reducing ammonia levels to improve the condition.
A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient is prescribed lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, the nurse should monitor for hyperkalemia. Lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia by decreasing aldosterone secretion, which leads to potassium retention in the body. Hyperkalemia is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be closely monitored, as it can have serious consequences such as affecting cardiac function.
A client with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is at risk for which of the following conditions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Chronic alcohol abuse can lead to liver cirrhosis due to long-term liver damage. Alcohol consumption over time can cause inflammation and scarring of the liver, eventually leading to cirrhosis. This condition can severely impact liver function and may progress to liver failure if not addressed.
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tiotropium is a long-acting bronchodilator used to relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It works by relaxing the muscles around the airways, leading to bronchodilation and improved breathing, making it an essential treatment in managing COPD symptoms.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The amount available is digoxin 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To achieve the prescribed dose of 0.25 mg, the healthcare professional should administer 2 tablets of 0.125 mg each, totaling 0.25 mg.
The charge nurse observes that a client with a nasogastric tube on low intermittent suction is drinking a glass of water immediately after the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) left the room. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the charge nurse to take is to remove the glass of water and speak to the UAP. This ensures immediate correction and education to prevent further issues with the nasogastric tube. Addressing the situation promptly can prevent harm to the client and reinforces the importance of following proper protocols.
A client is receiving chemotherapy and is at risk for neutropenia. Which precaution should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Placing the client in a private room is crucial to protect them from infections due to their compromised immune system. Neutropenia, a common side effect of chemotherapy, decreases white blood cell count, making the client more susceptible to infections. By placing the client in a private room, exposure to pathogens from other individuals is minimized, reducing the risk of infection and helping maintain the client's health during this vulnerable period.
What action should the healthcare provider take to reduce the risk of vesicant extravasation in a client receiving intravenous chemotherapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Monitoring the intravenous site hourly is essential to identify early signs of extravasation, such as swelling or pain, which can help prevent tissue damage. Prompt detection allows for immediate intervention, minimizing the risk of serious complications associated with vesicant extravasation.
The nurse is planning care for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which intervention should the nurse include to reduce the risk of bleeding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering vitamin K as prescribed can help reduce the risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis by promoting clotting factor production. Cirrhosis often leads to impaired liver function, affecting the synthesis of clotting factors. Vitamin K supplementation helps in the production of these essential clotting factors, thus reducing the risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important for overall care but not directly related to reducing the risk of bleeding in cirrhosis. Limiting dietary protein intake (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases of cirrhosis but does not directly address the risk of bleeding. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice D) is beneficial for various aspects of health but does not specifically target the risk of bleeding in cirrhosis.
What is the primary cause of jaundice in a client with liver cirrhosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Jaundice in a client with liver cirrhosis is primarily caused by increased bilirubin levels. In liver cirrhosis, impaired liver function leads to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, resulting in jaundice. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment produced from the breakdown of red blood cells, and its elevation is a common manifestation of liver dysfunction. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While decreased bile production can contribute to jaundice, in liver cirrhosis, the key factor is the buildup of bilirubin due to liver dysfunction, not a decrease in bile production. Hepatic inflammation and portal hypertension are associated with liver cirrhosis but are not the primary causes of jaundice in this context.
When a client expresses, 'I don't know how I will go on' while discussing feelings related to a recent loss, the nurse remains silent. What is the most likely reason for the nurse's behavior?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In therapeutic communication, silence can offer the client an opportunity to process their emotions and thoughts. By remaining silent, the nurse provides a space for the client to reflect on their own words, facilitating deeper exploration and understanding of their feelings.
When a client reports being allergic to penicillin, which question should the nurse ask to gather more information?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Questioning the client about the specific allergic reaction to penicillin is crucial for assessing the severity and type of allergic response, aiding in determining appropriate treatment and avoiding potential adverse reactions.
The client with newly diagnosed hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which recommendation should be made?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Engaging in at least 150 minutes of moderate exercise per week is a key lifestyle modification recommended for individuals with hypertension. Regular exercise helps manage blood pressure, improve cardiovascular health, and overall well-being. It is important for the client to adopt a healthy lifestyle to control hypertension and reduce the risk of complications.
The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has just undergone a thyroidectomy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Numbness and tingling around the mouth can indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication after thyroidectomy. Hypocalcemia can occur due to inadvertent injury or removal of the parathyroid glands during the thyroidectomy, leading to decreased calcium levels. As a result, the client may experience symptoms such as numbness, tingling, muscle cramps, or spasms. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent severe complications like tetany or seizures. Therefore, the healthcare provider should address numbness and tingling around the mouth immediately to prevent further deterioration of calcium levels and potential serious outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with immediate post-thyroidectomy complications and can be addressed after ensuring the client's calcium levels are stable.
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing severe dyspnea. What position should the nurse encourage the patient to assume?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The High Fowler's position is the most appropriate position for a patient with COPD experiencing severe dyspnea. This position helps improve lung expansion and reduce dyspnea by allowing the diaphragm to move more freely and increasing the efficiency of breathing. It also helps reduce the work of breathing and enhances oxygenation in patients with COPD. Supine position (Choice A) may worsen dyspnea by limiting lung expansion. Prone position (Choice B) is not ideal for COPD patients experiencing severe dyspnea as it may restrict breathing. Trendelenburg position (Choice D) is not recommended for COPD patients with dyspnea as it can further compromise breathing.
A patient with severe anemia is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the primary action of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Erythropoietin is a hormone that primarily stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells. By increasing red blood cell production, erythropoietin helps to improve oxygen delivery to tissues, which is essential in managing anemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin specifically targets red blood cell production and does not have a direct effect on white blood cells, platelets, or clotting factors.
A healthcare professional is participating in the emergency care of a client who has just developed variceal bleeding. What intervention should the healthcare professional anticipate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for variceal bleeding is IV administration of octreotide. Octreotide helps control bleeding from varices by reducing portal blood flow and pressure, which is crucial in managing this emergency situation.
A client with acute pancreatitis is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority nursing intervention for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing intervention for a client with acute pancreatitis is to maintain NPO (nothing by mouth) status and administer IV fluids. This approach helps rest the pancreas, decrease pancreatic stimulation, and prevent further exacerbation of the condition. By withholding oral intake and providing IV fluids, the pancreas is given the opportunity to recover and inflammation can be reduced. This intervention is crucial in the acute phase of pancreatitis to support the healing process and prevent complications.
What instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for a patient with hypothyroidism prescribed levothyroxine?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a patient with hypothyroidism prescribed levothyroxine is to take the medication in the morning on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Taking it with meals can interfere with absorption. Patients should not discontinue the medication without consulting their healthcare provider as it can lead to adverse effects. Doubling the dose if a dose is missed can increase the risk of side effects and overdosage. It is crucial for patients to follow the prescribed dosing schedule and consult their healthcare provider for any concerns or missed doses.
What is the primary action of a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) prescribed to a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. The primary action of short-acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) is to relieve bronchospasm. These medications are bronchodilators that work by opening the airways, making breathing easier for patients experiencing asthma exacerbations. By relieving bronchospasm, SABAs help improve airflow and alleviate symptoms of asthma such as wheezing and shortness of breath. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because SABAs do not primarily reduce inflammation, thin respiratory secretions, or suppress cough. While these actions may be part of asthma management, the immediate goal of using a SABA during an acute exacerbation is to quickly relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow.
A client is undergoing chemotherapy and is at risk for developing thrombocytopenia. What precaution should the nurse teach the client to minimize the risk of bleeding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using a soft-bristled toothbrush is essential for clients at risk of thrombocytopenia to prevent gum bleeding, as their platelet counts may be low. Vigorous brushing with a hard-bristled toothbrush can injure the gums, leading to bleeding, which can be exacerbated in clients with low platelets. Therefore, advising the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush is a crucial precaution to minimize the risk of bleeding.
A patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Report any visual disturbances.' Patients taking digoxin should be instructed to report any visual disturbances, as this can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. Visual disturbances like changes in color vision, blurred vision, or seeing halos around lights can indicate an overdose of digoxin. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Instructing a patient to take an extra dose if they miss one can lead to overdose. Avoiding high-potassium foods is important for patients on potassium-sparing diuretics, not digoxin. Stopping the medication if the pulse is normal is incorrect, as the pulse rate alone is not an indicator of digoxin effectiveness or toxicity.
A client with a history of gout is experiencing an acute attack. Which medication should the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During an acute gout attack, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe colchicine. Colchicine is commonly used to treat acute gout attacks because it works by reducing inflammation and alleviating pain associated with the condition. It is important to note that aspirin is not recommended for gout treatment and may even exacerbate the symptoms. Allopurinol and probenecid are medications used for long-term management of gout by reducing uric acid levels in the blood, but they are not typically prescribed during an acute attack. Therefore, colchicine is the most appropriate medication for managing an acute gout attack.
A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT)/INR. Warfarin affects the clotting ability of the blood by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial to assess the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine if the patient is within the desired anticoagulation range to prevent either clotting issues or excessive bleeding.
After a client's neck dissection surgery resulted in damage to the superior laryngeal nerve, what area of assessment should the nurse prioritize?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Damage to the superior laryngeal nerve can lead to swallowing difficulties due to impaired laryngeal function. As a result, assessing the client's swallowing ability is crucial to prevent aspiration and ensure proper nutrition and hydration.
During a home visit, the nurse should evaluate the adequacy of a client's COPD treatment by assessing for which primary symptom?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing for dyspnea is crucial when evaluating COPD treatment effectiveness as it is a primary symptom of the condition. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a common and distressing symptom in COPD patients. Monitoring the severity of dyspnea can provide valuable insights into the client's response to treatment and disease progression.
A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec) is to take the medication on an empty stomach. This is important for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication in treating peptic ulcer disease. Choice A ('Take the medication with food') is incorrect because omeprazole should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice B ('Take the medication at bedtime') is incorrect as it does not align with the optimal timing for omeprazole administration. Choice D ('Take the medication as needed for pain relief') is incorrect because omeprazole is not typically used for immediate pain relief but rather for long-term management of peptic ulcer disease.
A 55-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The presentation of fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice in a 55-year-old woman, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct, are characteristic of primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary biliary cirrhosis is an autoimmune liver disease that typically affects middle-aged women, leading to progressive destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts.
A client with severe anemia is being treated with a blood transfusion. Which assessment finding indicates a transfusion reaction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Fever and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction. These symptoms indicate that the body is having a response to the transfused blood, possibly due to incompatibility or an immune reaction. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a typical sign of a transfusion reaction. Increased urine output (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic signs of a transfusion reaction. It is crucial to recognize symptoms of a transfusion reaction promptly to prevent further complications and ensure appropriate management.
A 40-year-old woman presents with a history of chronic constipation, bloating, and abdominal pain. She notes that the pain is relieved with defecation. She denies any weight loss, blood in her stools, or nocturnal symptoms. Physical examination and routine blood tests are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The patient's symptoms of chronic constipation, bloating, abdominal pain relieved with defecation, absence of weight loss, blood in stools, or nocturnal symptoms, along with normal physical examination and routine blood tests, are indicative of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). IBS is a functional gastrointestinal disorder characterized by abdominal pain or discomfort and altered bowel habits in the absence of any organic cause. It is a diagnosis of exclusion made based on symptom criteria, and the provided clinical scenario aligns with the typical presentation of IBS.
A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L. What intervention can the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In acute renal failure with high serum potassium levels, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe a Kayexalate retention enema. Kayexalate is a medication used to lower elevated potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion through the gastrointestinal tract, thus aiding in the management of hyperkalemia in clients with renal failure.
When teaching a client postoperative breathing techniques with an incentive spirometer (IS), what should the nurse encourage the client to do to maintain sustained maximal inspiration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To maintain sustained maximal inspiration when using an incentive spirometer, the client should be encouraged to inspire deeply and slowly over 3 to 5 seconds. This technique aids in achieving the goal of sustained maximal inspiration, which is essential for postoperative respiratory recovery.
A patient with asthma is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. What is the most important instruction to give to the patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important instruction to give to a patient using a corticosteroid inhaler is to rinse the mouth after each use. This is crucial to prevent the development of oral thrush, a common side effect of corticosteroid inhalers. Failure to rinse the mouth can lead to the overgrowth of yeast in the mouth, causing oral thrush, which can be uncomfortable and require additional treatment. Therefore, reminding patients to rinse their mouth after using the inhaler is essential in preventing this potential complication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Using the inhaler only during asthma attacks may lead to uncontrolled asthma symptoms. Taking a double dose without healthcare provider instruction can result in overdose or side effects. Avoiding a spacer with the inhaler can reduce the effectiveness of delivering the medication to the lungs.
A patient with severe pain is prescribed morphine sulfate. What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient is prescribed morphine sulfate, the most critical side effect for the nurse to monitor is respiratory depression. Morphine can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to inadequate ventilation and potentially life-threatening consequences. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status closely is essential to promptly identify and manage any signs of respiratory depression.
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium. What is the primary action of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ipratropium is an anticholinergic bronchodilator that primarily works to relieve bronchospasm by dilating the airways and improving airflow in patients with COPD. It does not have a significant effect on reducing inflammation, suppressing cough, or thinning respiratory secretions.
A client who is receiving heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding. The appropriate action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider. Increasing the heparin infusion rate can further elevate the aPTT, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Applying pressure to the injection site is not relevant in this situation. Administering protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin in cases of overdose or bleeding, but it is not the initial action for an elevated aPTT.
The healthcare professional is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Nausea and vomiting are common signs of digoxin toxicity, which can lead to serious complications like dysrhythmias. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent further harm to the client. Choice A, a heart rate of 58 beats per minute, although slightly lower than normal, may be appropriate for a client on digoxin. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is within normal limits and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Choice D, shortness of breath, is a common symptom in heart failure and requires monitoring but is not as indicative of digoxin toxicity as nausea and vomiting.
A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul breathing). This is a sign of severe acidosis commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and requires immediate intervention. Kussmaul breathing helps to compensate for the metabolic acidosis by blowing off carbon dioxide. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration and potential respiratory failure. Fruity breath odor (Choice A) is a classic sign of DKA but does not require immediate intervention. While a blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL (Choice B) is high, it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most critical finding that requires immediate intervention in this scenario.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing respiratory distress. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with COPD experiencing respiratory distress, the priority intervention should be to position the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and reduce the work of breathing. Administering bronchodilators and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions but positioning the client to enhance respiratory function takes precedence in this situation. Obtaining an ABG sample may provide valuable information but is not the initial priority when addressing respiratory distress.
What health promotion teaching should prioritize to prevent drug-induced hepatitis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Adhering to dosing recommendations of over-the-counter analgesics is crucial in preventing drug-induced hepatitis. Overdosing on analgesics can lead to liver damage, making it essential to follow the recommended dosages to reduce the risk of hepatotoxicity.
A client with a history of chronic alcohol use is admitted with confusion and an unsteady gait. Which deficiency should the nurse suspect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Thiamine (Vitamin B1). Chronic alcohol use can lead to thiamine deficiency, which can result in neurological symptoms such as confusion and an unsteady gait. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function and nerve conduction, and its deficiency is common in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12) deficiency can also present with neurological symptoms, but in this case, the patient's history of chronic alcohol use points more towards thiamine deficiency. Folic acid deficiency typically presents with symptoms like fatigue and megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone health issues rather than neurological symptoms.
A client who delivered a 7-pound infant 12 hours ago is complaining of a severe headache. The client's blood pressure is 110/70, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/minute, heart rate is 74 beats/minute, and temperature is 98.6º F. The client's fundus is firm and one fingerbreadth above the umbilicus. What action should the healthcare team implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action to implement first is to determine if the client received anesthesia during delivery. Anesthesia can be a potential cause of postpartum headaches. This information is crucial in assessing and managing the client's condition effectively before considering other interventions. It helps in identifying possible contributing factors to the client's complaint of a severe headache and guides the healthcare team in providing appropriate care and treatment.
Your time is up
You’ve reached the end of your allocated time, but you can still review the questions and continue navigating the exam.
Restart exam?
Reset progress and restart the exam? Your current score will be saved before your answers are cleared.