LPN LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. A client with hypertension is receiving dietary education from a nurse. Which recommendation should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of saturated fats.
- B. Limit your sodium intake to less than 2 grams per day.
- C. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- D. Consume at least three alcoholic beverages daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with hypertension is to limit sodium intake to less than 2 grams per day. High sodium intake can worsen hypertension by increasing blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing saturated fats (Choice A) can be detrimental to heart health and exacerbate hypertension. Avoiding foods high in potassium (Choice C) is not recommended as potassium-rich foods can actually be beneficial for managing blood pressure. Consuming three alcoholic beverages daily (Choice D) can also have a negative impact on blood pressure and overall health.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which pre-procedure instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Maintain a low-protein diet for 24 hours before the biopsy.
- B. Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy.
- C. Drink plenty of fluids before the procedure.
- D. Take your routine medications with a full glass of water before the biopsy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct pre-procedure instruction the nurse should provide to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for a renal biopsy is to avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy. This instruction is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding during the procedure, as anticoagulants can increase the chance of bleeding complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because maintaining a low-protein diet, drinking plenty of fluids, or taking routine medications with water are not specifically related to reducing the risk of bleeding associated with a renal biopsy in a client with CKD.
3. A client who participates in a health maintenance organization (HMO) needs a bone marrow transplant for the treatment of breast cancer. The client tells the nurse that she is concerned that her HMO may deny her claim. What action by the nurse best addresses the client's need at this time?
- A. Have the client's healthcare provider write a letter to the HMO explaining the need for the transplant.
- B. Help the client place a call to the HMO to seek information about limitations of coverage.
- C. Encourage the client to contact a lawyer to file a lawsuit against the HMO if necessary.
- D. Have the social worker contact the state board of insurance to register a complaint against the HMO.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to help the client directly contact the HMO to seek information about limitations of coverage. This approach addresses the client's immediate concerns and clarifies the situation, enabling the client to understand the coverage and potential outcomes regarding the bone marrow transplant. Choice A is not the best option as having the healthcare provider write a letter may not provide immediate clarification on coverage. Choice C is inappropriate as legal action should be considered as a last resort, and choice D involving the state board of insurance is not necessary at this initial stage of addressing the client's concern.
4. A client who has just started taking levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) for Parkinson's disease reports experiencing nausea. What should the nurse recommend to the client?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Consume a low-protein snack with the medication.
- C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
- D. Stop taking the medication and notify your healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet). Consuming a low-protein snack with the medication can help reduce nausea. The protein in food can compete with levodopa for absorption, so taking it with a low-protein snack may improve its effectiveness and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option A is incorrect as taking the medication on an empty stomach may exacerbate nausea. Option C is incorrect because increasing intake of dairy products is not recommended to alleviate nausea. Option D is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication without healthcare provider guidance can lead to adverse effects.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Platelet count.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR).
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
- D. Fibrinogen level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. These tests help assess the clotting time and the desired anticoagulant effect of the medication. Monitoring PT and INR levels is crucial to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications associated with warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice A) measures the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific for monitoring warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice C) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) assesses the amount of fibrinogen in the blood and is not a specific test for monitoring warfarin therapy.
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