Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a 37-year-old woman with metastatic ovarian cancer admitted for nausea and vomiting. The physician orders total parenteral nutrition (TPN), a nutritional consult, and diet recall. Which of the following is the BEST indication that the patient's nutritional status has improved after 4 days?

• A. The patient eats most of the food served to her
• B. The patient has gained 1 pound since admission
• C. The patient's albumin level is 4.0mg/dL
• D. The patient's hemoglobin is 8.5g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An improved albumin level is the best indicator of improved nutritional status after TPN. Albumin is a key protein that reflects the body's overall nutritional status and is commonly used to assess nutritional health. Choices A, B, and D are not as reliable indicators of improved nutritional status. Choice A may not accurately reflect nutritional improvement as it could be influenced by factors other than nutrition. Choice B may indicate fluid retention or loss rather than true nutritional improvement. Choice D, hemoglobin level, is more related to anemia and oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, rather than nutritional status.

2. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who has iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Easy bruising
• C. Pale conjunctiva
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pale conjunctiva is a common sign of iron deficiency anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels. This results in decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to tissue hypoxia and pallor. 'Increased energy' (choice A) is not typically associated with iron deficiency anemia, as fatigue and weakness are common symptoms. 'Easy bruising' (choice B) is more characteristic of platelet disorders or vitamin deficiencies rather than iron deficiency anemia. 'Weight gain' (choice D) is not a typical finding in iron deficiency anemia; in fact, weight loss is more common due to decreased appetite and overall weakness.

3. A client takes prednisone daily for the treatment of chronic asthma. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Gastric ulcer formation
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gastric ulcer formation. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, increases the risk of gastric ulcer formation, especially with long-term use. While prednisone can also lead to hyperglycemia (choice A) and hypertension (choice B) as adverse effects, monitoring for gastric ulcer formation is a priority due to its association with corticosteroid therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone and is less likely compared to gastric ulcers.

4. The nurse is caring for a client following an acute myocardial infarction. The client is concerned that providing self-care will be difficult due to extreme fatigue. Which of the following strategies should the nurse implement to promote the client's independence?

• A. Request an occupational therapy consult to determine the need for assistive devices
• B. Assign assistive personnel to perform self-care tasks for the client
• C. Instruct the client to focus on gradually resuming self-care tasks
• D. Ask the client if a family member is available to assist with his care

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Instructing the client to focus on gradually resuming self-care tasks is the most appropriate strategy to promote independence while managing fatigue. This approach encourages the client to regain autonomy by engaging in self-care activities at their own pace. Requesting an occupational therapy consult (Choice A) may be beneficial but does not directly address the client's concern regarding fatigue and self-care. Assigning assistive personnel (Choice B) may hinder the client's independence by taking over tasks the client could potentially perform. Asking about family assistance (Choice D) does not empower the client to regain self-care abilities.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Zolpidem
• C. Morphine
• D. Lorazepam

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.

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