ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020
1. A nurse is caring for a 37-year-old woman with metastatic ovarian cancer admitted for nausea and vomiting. The physician orders total parenteral nutrition (TPN), a nutritional consult, and diet recall. Which of the following is the BEST indication that the patient's nutritional status has improved after 4 days?
- A. The patient eats most of the food served to her
- B. The patient has gained 1 pound since admission
- C. The patient's albumin level is 4.0mg/dL
- D. The patient's hemoglobin is 8.5g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An improved albumin level is the best indicator of improved nutritional status after TPN. Albumin is a key protein that reflects the body's overall nutritional status and is commonly used to assess nutritional health. Choices A, B, and D are not as reliable indicators of improved nutritional status. Choice A may not accurately reflect nutritional improvement as it could be influenced by factors other than nutrition. Choice B may indicate fluid retention or loss rather than true nutritional improvement. Choice D, hemoglobin level, is more related to anemia and oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, rather than nutritional status.
2. A client with hypokalemia is commonly expected to present with which of the following findings?
- A. Muscle weakness
- B. Nausea
- C. Tingling sensation
- D. Increased thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle weakness. Hypokalemia is characterized by low potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to muscle weakness. This occurs because potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and a deficiency can impair muscle strength. Nausea (choice B) is not a typical finding associated with hypokalemia. Tingling sensation (choice C) is more commonly linked to issues like nerve damage or poor blood circulation, rather than hypokalemia. Increased thirst (choice D) is not a direct symptom of hypokalemia; it is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes or dehydration.
3. What are the signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal, and how should they be managed?
- A. Nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate; manage with methadone
- B. Pain and restlessness; manage with naloxone
- C. Hallucinations and muscle cramps; manage with clonidine
- D. Severe vomiting and seizures; manage with benzodiazepines
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal include nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate. Methadone is commonly used to manage opioid withdrawal symptoms by alleviating them. Choice B, managing with naloxone, is incorrect as naloxone is primarily used for opioid overdose reversal, not withdrawal. Choice C, managing with clonidine, is incorrect as clonidine is used to manage some symptoms of withdrawal, such as anxiety, agitation, and hypertension, but not hallucinations. Choice D, managing with benzodiazepines, is incorrect as benzodiazepines are not typically used as first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal; they may be considered in specific cases but are not a standard approach.
4. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What should the nurse do immediately?
- A. Apply a warm compress over the IV site
- B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
- C. Monitor the site for signs of infection
- D. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the immediate action the nurse should take is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications such as infection, thrombosis, or sepsis. Removing the IV line helps prevent further irritation and infection. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) may provide some relief but does not address the root cause. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice C) is important but not the immediate action needed to address phlebitis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice D) may be prescribed by the provider but is not the first step in managing phlebitis.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client with dementia. Which of the following findings should the nurse address first?
- A. Restlessness and agitation
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Wandering during the night
- D. Incontinence
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with dementia, addressing restlessness and agitation is a priority because these symptoms can exacerbate dementia and lead to further complications. Restlessness and agitation can indicate underlying issues such as pain, discomfort, or unmet needs, which should be promptly assessed and managed to improve the client's quality of life. Decreased respiratory rate, wandering during the night, and incontinence are important to address but do not pose immediate risks to the client's well-being compared to the potential effects of unmanaged restlessness and agitation in dementia.
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