LPN LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider in an antepartum clinic is collecting data from a client who has a TORCH infection. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect? (Select all that apply)
- A. Joint pain
- B. Malaise
- C. Rash
- D. Tender lymph nodes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A TORCH infection can cause joint pain, malaise, rash, and tender lymph nodes. These findings are characteristic of TORCH infections and are important to recognize in pregnant individuals as they can have serious implications for both the mother and the fetus. While joint pain, malaise, and rash can be present in TORCH infections, tender lymph nodes are a common finding that the healthcare provider should expect. Tender lymph nodes are often associated with the inflammatory response to infection and can be palpated during a physical examination. Therefore, in this scenario, the healthcare provider should anticipate the presence of tender lymph nodes in a client with a TORCH infection, making option D the correct answer.
2. A healthcare provider in a clinic is reinforcing teaching with a client of childbearing age about recommended folic acid supplements. Which of the following defects can occur in the fetus or neonate as a result of folic acid deficiency?
- A. Iron deficiency anemia
- B. Poor bone formation
- C. Macrosomic fetus
- D. Neural tube defects
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Neural tube defects. Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy can lead to neural tube defects in the fetus, affecting the brain, spine, or spinal cord development. Iron deficiency anemia (choice A) is not directly related to folic acid deficiency. Poor bone formation (choice B) is more associated with calcium and vitamin D deficiencies. Macrosomic fetus (choice C) refers to a baby with excessive birth weight and is not a typical outcome of folic acid deficiency in pregnancy. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals of childbearing age to take recommended folic acid supplements to prevent neural tube defects.
3. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?
- A. Betamethasone
- B. Indomethacin
- C. Nifedipine
- D. Methylergonovine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In cases of placenta previa with active bleeding at 32 weeks of gestation, Betamethasone is prescribed to accelerate fetal lung maturity in anticipation of potential preterm delivery. This medication helps in reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn, which is crucial in managing such high-risk pregnancies. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug not indicated in this scenario and may be contraindicated due to its effects on platelet function and potential risk of bleeding. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like preterm labor or hypertension, not specifically for placenta previa with active bleeding. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic drug used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not indicated for placenta previa with active bleeding.
4. A client who is at 8 weeks of gestation tells the nurse, 'I am not sure I am happy about being pregnant.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. I will inform the provider that you are having these feelings.
- B. It is normal to have these feelings during the first few months of pregnancy.
- C. You should be happy that you are going to bring new life into the world.
- D. I am going to make an appointment with the counselor for you to discuss these thoughts.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During the first few months of pregnancy, it is common for individuals to experience mixed feelings due to hormonal changes and the significant life adjustments that come with pregnancy. The nurse's response should acknowledge the client's feelings as normal and provide reassurance rather than dismissive or directive statements. By acknowledging the normalcy of these emotions, the nurse validates the client's experience and offers support during this critical time. Choices A, C, and D are less appropriate. Choice A focuses on informing the provider without addressing the client's emotions directly. Choice C disregards the client's current feelings and imposes a specific emotional response. Choice D jumps to scheduling a counseling appointment without first acknowledging the client's emotions or providing immediate support and validation.
5. A client at 40 weeks of gestation is experiencing contractions every 3 to 5 minutes, becoming stronger. A vaginal exam by the registered nurse reveals the client's cervix is 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced, and -1 station. The client requests pain medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take? (Select all that apply)
- A. Provide ice chips.
- B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- C. Administer opioid analgesic medication.
- D. Provide ice chips.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During labor, effective pain management is crucial. The nurse should assist the client with patterned breathing techniques to help manage pain and administer opioid analgesic medication as ordered. Providing ice chips is a comfort measure but does not directly address pain relief. Inserting a urinary catheter is not typically indicated at this stage of labor unless there are specific medical indications, such as the need to closely monitor urine output. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to prepare to take in this scenario is to administer opioid analgesic medication.
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