Free Maternal Newborn Nursing practice for Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam (ATI LPN). Answer 38 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and
A patient on the labor and delivery unit is having induction of labor with oxytocin administered through a secondary IV line. Uterine contractions occur every 2 minutes, last 90 seconds, and are strong to palpation. The baseline fetal heart rate is 150/min, with uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of the contraction and a return to baseline after the contraction is over. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The described pattern suggests late decelerations, indicating uteroplacental insufficiency. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion helps reduce uterine contractions, improving placental blood flow and fetal oxygenation. This intervention is essential to prevent fetal compromise and potential harm during labor. Choice A is incorrect because decreasing the rate of the maintenance IV solution does not directly address the cause of the late decelerations. Choice C is incorrect because increasing the rate of IV oxytocin can worsen uterine contractions, exacerbating the fetal distress. Choice D is incorrect because slowing the client's breathing rate is not indicated in the management of late decelerations during labor.
During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because an episiotomy is an intentional incision made by the healthcare provider to widen the vaginal opening during delivery. This procedure is performed to facilitate the birth of the baby and prevent uncontrolled tearing of the perineum. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the purpose and implications of episiotomy to ensure informed decision-making and proper postpartum care. Choice A is incorrect because an episiotomy is not a perineal tear but a deliberate incision. Choice B is incorrect because a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area is not a standard practice and can lead to complications. Choice D is incorrect because a mediolateral episiotomy is not universally considered easier to repair than a median episiotomy; the choice of incision type depends on the healthcare provider's preference and clinical situation.
A client who is 3 days postpartum is receiving education on effective breastfeeding. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. The nurse should inform the client that a baby who is sated will appear content after feedings. This indicates that the baby is effectively emptying the breasts during feedings. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Breast milk replaces colostrum within a few days, not 10 days. B) Breasts feeling firm after breastfeeding may indicate engorgement or plugged ducts, not necessarily effective breastfeeding. C) While the frequency of urination is important, it is not directly related to effective breastfeeding.
During preterm labor, a client is scheduled for an amniocentesis. The nurse should review which of the following tests to assess fetal lung maturity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio is a test used to evaluate fetal lung maturity. An L/S ratio greater than 2:1 indicates fetal lung maturity. This test helps in determining the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is used in screening for neural tube defects, not for assessing lung maturity. The Kleihauer-Betke test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not fetal lung maturity. The Indirect Coombs' test is used to identify the presence of antibodies in the mother's blood that could attack fetal red blood cells, not for assessing lung maturity.
A pregnant client is learning about Kegel exercises in the third trimester. Which statement signifies understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Kegel exercises are beneficial during pregnancy to help strengthen pelvic muscles, which is crucial for childbirth. Pelvic muscle stretching during birth is a key aspect of labor, making choice B the correct statement indicating understanding of the teaching. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Kegel exercises primarily focus on strengthening pelvic floor muscles to support the uterus, bladder, and bowel, aiding in labor and delivery. They are not directly related to preventing constipation, decreasing backaches, or preventing stretch marks.
A client reports unrelieved episiotomy pain 8 hours following a vaginal birth. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to apply an ice pack to the affected area. Ice packs help reduce swelling, inflammation, and provide pain relief post-episiotomy. Applying heat, as in a hot pack or warm sitz bath, can increase swelling and discomfort. Providing antiseptic solution in a squeeze bottle is not the first-line intervention for managing episiotomy pain, as the priority is pain relief and comfort.
A woman in a women's health clinic is receiving teaching about nutritional intake during her 8th week of gestation. The healthcare provider should advise the woman to increase her daily intake of which of the following nutrients?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During pregnancy, the recommended daily iron intake is higher compared to non-pregnant women. Pregnant women should aim for 27 mg/day of iron, while non-pregnant women require 15 mg/day if under 19 years old and 18 mg/day if between 19 and 50 years old. Iron is essential during pregnancy to support the increased blood volume and ensure the proper oxygen supply to the fetus. Calcium is important for bone health but does not need a significant increase during early pregnancy. Vitamin E and Vitamin D are important but do not have specific increases recommended during the 8th week of gestation.
A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A contraction stress test (CST) is performed to assess how the fetus responds to the stress of contractions. Indications for this test include decreased fetal movement, intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), and postmaturity. These conditions may warrant the need for a CST to evaluate fetal well-being and determine appropriate management. Therefore, all of the above options are correct indications for a contraction stress test. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they are all valid reasons for performing a CST in a pregnant client.
When caring for clients in a prenatal clinic, a nurse should report which client's weight gain to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A weight gain of 3.6 kg (8 lb) in the first trimester is excessive and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Excessive weight gain in the first trimester can be a sign of potential issues that need monitoring and intervention to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, C, and D represent weight gains that are within normal ranges for the respective trimesters and do not raise immediate concerns for reporting to the provider.
A client is to receive oxytocin to augment labor. Which finding contraindicates the initiation of the oxytocin infusion and should be reported to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Late decelerations are indicative of uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be exacerbated by oxytocin administration, potentially compromising fetal well-being. Therefore, detecting late decelerations should prompt immediate reporting to the provider to prevent harm to the fetus. Choices B, C, and D are not contraindications for initiating oxytocin infusion. Moderate variability of the FHR is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being, cessation of uterine dilation may indicate a pause in labor progress but does not contraindicate oxytocin, and prolonged active phase of labor may necessitate oxytocin administration to augment contractions and progress labor.
A client in an obstetrical clinic is discussing using an IUD for contraception with a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Checking for the presence of IUD strings after each period is crucial to ensure the IUD is correctly positioned and functioning. This practice helps in confirming the effectiveness of the contraceptive method and timely detection of any displacement or issues with the IUD. Choice A is incorrect as IUDs have varying durations of effectiveness, but they do not need to be replaced annually as a routine. Choice B is incorrect as women can get an IUD even if they haven't had a child. Choice C is incorrect as fertility typically returns shortly after IUD removal, not necessarily after a specific timeframe like 5 months.
During a Leopold maneuver, a healthcare professional determines that the fetus is in an RSA position. Which fetal presentation should be documented in the client's medical record?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: "Breech." The RSA position indicates that the fetus is in a breech presentation. In a breech presentation, the buttocks or feet are positioned to be delivered first, which can impact the mode of delivery and require close monitoring during labor and birth. Choice A (Vertex) refers to the head-first presentation, which is considered the normal and most common presentation for birth. Choice B (Shoulder) does not represent a specific fetal presentation. Choice D (Mentum) refers to the chin presentation, which is also not relevant in this scenario.
A client who is at 22 weeks gestation is being educated by a nurse about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. The nurse should advise the client to empty her bladder before an amniocentesis to minimize the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. This precaution helps ensure the safety and accuracy of the procedure by reducing potential complications related to bladder puncture. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because lying on the right side, fasting for 24 hours, and determining gestational age are not relevant instructions for an amniocentesis procedure.
A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Shortness of breath is a symptom that can indicate a serious side effect of oral contraceptives, such as a potential blood clot in the lungs. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with serious side effects of oral contraceptives and are considered normal or common side effects that do not require urgent medical attention.
A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching about contraceptive use with a group of clients. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can help prevent breakage and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections (STIs). This statement demonstrates the client's understanding of the importance of proper condom use to maximize protection. Choice B is incorrect because a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure contraceptive effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect as oral contraceptives are known to improve acne in some cases. Choice D is incorrect because a contraceptive patch is typically replaced weekly, not monthly.
A nurse is caring for several clients. The nurse should recognize that it is safe to administer tocolytic therapy to which of the following clients?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tocolytic therapy is used to suppress premature labor. It is appropriate to administer it to a client experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation to help delay delivery and improve neonatal outcomes. Administering tocolytic therapy to a client experiencing fetal death, Braxton-Hicks contractions, or post-term pregnancy is not indicated and may not be safe or effective in these situations. Fetal death at 32 weeks indicates a non-viable pregnancy, Braxton-Hicks contractions are normal and not indicative of preterm labor, and post-term pregnancy at 42 weeks does not require tocolytic therapy.
A client who is 12 hours postpartum has a fundus located two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, deviated to the right of the midline, and less firm than previously noted. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the client's fundus findings indicate a distended bladder, which can lead to uterine atony. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void is essential as a distended bladder can inhibit the uterus from contracting normally. This action can help the uterus contract effectively and prevent complications such as postpartum hemorrhage. Placing the client in a side-lying position, obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin, or administering methylergonovine are not the priority actions in this situation. Placing the client in a side-lying position might be indicated for fundal displacement, but it is not the priority here. Obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin and administering methylergonovine are interventions for managing uterine atony, which is not the primary issue in this case; the priority is addressing the distended bladder.
While assisting with the care of an infant with a high bilirubin level receiving phototherapy, which finding should the nurse prioritize for reporting to the charge nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Sunken fontanels should be prioritized for reporting as they indicate dehydration, which is a critical concern in infants undergoing phototherapy. Dehydration can lead to serious complications, making it essential for the nurse to promptly inform the charge nurse for appropriate intervention and management. Conjunctivitis, bronze skin discoloration, and maculopapular skin rash are important findings to note, but in this scenario, sunken fontanels take precedence due to the potential severity of dehydration in infants.
A healthcare professional is assessing a late preterm newborn. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an indication of hypoglycemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, respiratory distress, as it is a clinical manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Other signs of hypoglycemia include an abnormal cry, jitteriness, lethargy, poor feeding, apnea, and seizures. Hypertonia, increased feeding, and hyperthermia are not typically associated with hypoglycemia in newborns. Hypertonia is more indicative of neurological issues, increased feeding is not a common sign of hypoglycemia, and hyperthermia is not a typical symptom of low blood sugar.
During a weekly prenatal visit, a nurse is assessing a client at 38 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A weight gain of 2.2 kg (4.8 lb) in a week is above the expected reference range for a client at 38 weeks of gestation and could indicate complications such as preeclampsia or gestational hypertension. Rapid weight gain at this stage requires immediate attention and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are not the priority findings to report to the provider at this stage of gestation. Blood pressure of 136/88 mm Hg is within normal limits in pregnancy, insomnia is common in the third trimester, and Braxton-Hicks contractions are expected in the third trimester as the body prepares for labor.
While assisting with the care of a client in active labor, a nurse observes clear fluid and a loop of pulsating umbilical cord outside the client's vagina. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the scenario of umbilical cord prolapse during labor, the nurse should first call for assistance. Umbilical cord prolapse is a critical obstetric emergency that requires immediate attention and skilled assistance. Calling for help ensures that additional support is on the way to provide prompt intervention. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position (Choice A) is no longer recommended as it may worsen the situation. Applying finger pressure to the presenting part (Choice B) can further compress the cord. Administering oxygen (Choice C) is important but should come after addressing the prolapsed cord.
A parent is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse regarding caring for their newborn after a circumcision. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to apply slight pressure with a sterile gauze pad for mild bleeding. This helps to stop bleeding. If the bleeding persists, the parent should contact the healthcare provider for further guidance. While inspecting the circumcision site is important, checking every 6 to 8 hours might be too frequent and could disrupt healing. Using baby wipes containing alcohol can irritate the sensitive skin, so it is advised to avoid them. Cleaning the circumcision site daily is crucial, but excessive cleaning by removing yellow exudate daily is not necessary unless advised by the healthcare provider.
A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is receiving dietary teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In hyperemesis gravidarum, where there is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, it is essential for the client to eat foods that appeal to their taste to prevent further nausea. Balancing meals may not be a priority initially if the client is struggling to keep any food down. Choice B is unrelated to managing hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, having hot tea with each meal, may not necessarily address the issue of taste preferences. Choice D, pairing sweets with a starch, is not as relevant as choosing foods appealing to taste for managing hyperemesis gravidarum.
A client has a new prescription for chlamydia. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct treatment for chlamydia is a one-time dose of azithromycin. It is crucial for the client to understand the correct medication regimen for effective treatment. Choice B is incorrect because treatment is necessary for the partner even if asymptomatic. Choice C is incorrect because sexual relations should be avoided until treatment is completed. Choice D is incorrect as retesting should generally occur 3 months after treatment.
A client is 1 hour postpartum and the nurse observes a large amount of lochia rubra and several small clots on the client's perineal pad. The fundus is midline and firm at the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the postpartum period, the presence of lochia rubra and small clots along with a firm, midline fundus at the umbilicus is considered normal. In this situation, the appropriate action is to document the findings and continue to monitor the client. Changes in the amount and character of lochia, deviation of the fundus from the midline, or fundal height above or below the expected level may indicate a need for further intervention. Encouraging bladder emptying is important but not the priority in this scenario. Notify the healthcare provider if there are signs of abnormal postpartum bleeding or fundal abnormalities. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because at this stage, there are no signs of abnormality that require immediate notification of the healthcare provider, increased frequency of fundal massage, or immediate bladder emptying.
When reinforcing teaching with a group of new parents about proper techniques for bottle feeding, which of the following instructions should be provided?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct technique for bottle feeding includes keeping the nipple full of formula throughout the feeding to prevent air from entering the baby's stomach. This helps reduce the risk of the baby swallowing air, which can lead to discomfort and colic. Therefore, maintaining a full nipple during feeding is essential for the baby's comfort and digestion. Option A is incorrect as burping should be done during the feeding to prevent excessive air intake. Option B is incorrect as the baby should be held semi-upright, not in a supine position, to reduce the risk of choking and ear infections. Option D is irrelevant to the feeding process and does not contribute to the baby's well-being.
In a prenatal clinic, a client in the first trimester of pregnancy has a health record that includes this data: G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How should the nurse interpret this information? (Select all that apply)
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Explanation:
The client's health record data is interpreted as follows: G3 (gravida 3 - total number of pregnancies), T1 (term births - number of full-term deliveries), P0 (preterm births - number of preterm deliveries), A1 (abortions/miscarriages - total number of miscarriages or abortions), L1 (living children - total number of living children). Therefore, the client has had three pregnancies, one full-term delivery, no preterm labor, one miscarriage/abortion, and one living child. The correct interpretation is that the client has delivered one newborn at term, experienced no preterm labor, had two prior pregnancies, and has one living child. Therefore, choice D is correct. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide a comprehensive interpretation of all aspects of the client's health record data.
When should a provider order a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening for pregnant clients?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is recommended for all pregnant clients to assess the risk of neural tube defects. It is a routine screening test used to detect increased levels of alpha-fetoprotein in maternal blood, which may indicate a higher risk for conditions such as neural tube defects in the developing fetus. Therefore, all pregnant clients, regardless of their medical history or risk factors, should undergo MSAFP screening as part of routine prenatal care. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the MSAFP screening is not specific to certain medical conditions or histories; it is a standard screening procedure for all pregnant individuals to evaluate neural tube defect risk in the fetus.
A healthcare professional is providing information to a group of clients who are pregnant about measures to relieve backache during pregnancy. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional include? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Performing the pelvic rock exercise daily can help relieve backache during pregnancy by strengthening the back and abdominal muscles, providing support to the spine. This exercise is beneficial in maintaining proper posture and reducing strain on the back. Avoiding standing for prolonged periods can also help alleviate backache by reducing pressure on the spine and supporting muscles. Kegel exercises primarily focus on strengthening the pelvic floor muscles and may not directly help with backache during pregnancy. Avoiding any lifting is overly restrictive and not necessary, as long as proper lifting techniques are followed.
A nurse is providing education about family bonding to parents who recently adopted a newborn. The nurse should make which of the following suggestions to aid the family's 7-year-old child in accepting the new family member?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To help a 7-year-old child accept a new family member, it is important to involve them in the process. Obtaining a gift from the newborn to present to the sibling is a thoughtful gesture that can make the older child feel included and valued in the family dynamic. This strategy fosters a sense of connection and understanding between the siblings, promoting acceptance and bonding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly involve the older sibling in a positive and inclusive manner. Allowing the sibling to hold the newborn during a bath or making them kiss the newborn might not resonate well with the 7-year-old and could potentially create negative feelings. Switching the sibling's room with the nursery is a major change that may not necessarily promote acceptance and bonding, and it could lead to feelings of displacement or confusion.
A client who underwent an amniotomy is now in the active phase of the first stage of labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement with this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the client to empty her bladder every 2 hours is essential during labor to prevent bladder distention, which can hinder labor progress and cause discomfort. A distended bladder can also lead to potential complications such as uterine atony or increased risk of infection. Choice A is incorrect as maintaining the client in the lithotomy position is not necessary during the active phase of the first stage of labor and may not be comfortable for the client. Choice B is incorrect because performing vaginal examinations frequently can increase the risk of introducing infection and disrupt the natural progress of labor. Choice C is incorrect as bearing down with each contraction is typically reserved for the second stage of labor when the cervix is fully dilated, not during the active phase of the first stage.
A client at 8 weeks of gestation with iron deficiency anemia is prescribed iron supplements. Which beverage should the nurse reinforce the client to take the supplements with for better absorption?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Orange juice.' Orange juice is recommended to be taken with iron supplements because vitamin C present in orange juice enhances iron absorption, improving the effectiveness of the supplement. It is essential to take iron supplements with a source of vitamin C to optimize iron absorption and address iron deficiency anemia. Ice water (Choice A), low-fat or whole milk (Choice B), and tea or coffee (Choice C) are not ideal choices to take with iron supplements as they do not contain vitamin C, which is crucial for enhancing iron absorption.
When assessing newborn reflexes, what action should be taken to elicit the Moro reflex?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Perform a sharp hand clap near the infant. The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is elicited by a sudden stimuli such as a sharp hand clap near the infant. This reflex is characterized by the infant's arms extending and then flexing with a distinctive 'startle' motion. It is a normal and expected reflex in newborns, typically disappearing by 3-6 months of age. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not elicit the Moro reflex; holding the newborn vertically (choice B) or placing a finger at the base of the newborn's toes (choice C) are associated with other reflexes, while turning the newborn's head quickly to one side (choice D) is related to the tonic neck reflex.
When assisting a client with breastfeeding, which of the following reflexes will promote the newborn to latch?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Rooting. The rooting reflex is crucial in newborns as it helps them locate the nipple for feeding. This reflex involves turning the head towards a stimulus that touches the cheek or mouth, aiding in the process of latching onto the breast for breastfeeding. The Babinski reflex is the fanning out and curling of the toes when the sole of the foot is stroked, the Moro reflex is the startle reflex in response to a sudden noise or movement, and the stepping reflex is the appearance of taking steps when an infant is held upright with feet touching a solid surface. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not play a direct role in promoting a newborn to latch during breastfeeding.
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via a continuous IV infusion. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. When a client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion, it is crucial to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) continuously. Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent seizures and is considered a high-alert medication that requires close monitoring, especially of FHR and uterine contractions. Monitoring the client's blood pressure every hour, as in choice A, is important but not as crucial as continuous FHR monitoring. Restricting the total hourly intake to 200 mL, as in choice B, is not a relevant intervention for a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Administering protamine sulfate for manifestations of toxicity, as in choice D, is incorrect as protamine sulfate is not the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity.
During a vaginal exam on a client in labor who reports severe pressure and pain in the lower back, a nurse notes that the fetal head is in a posterior position. Which of the following is the best nonpharmacological intervention for the nurse to perform to relieve the client's discomfort?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In cases where the fetus is in a posterior position causing severe pressure and pain in the lower back during labor, applying counter-pressure is the most effective nonpharmacological intervention. Counter-pressure helps lift the fetal head off the spinal nerve, offering relief to the client. This technique is evidence-based and recommended to alleviate discomfort associated with a posterior fetal position. Choices A, C, and D are not as effective in this situation. While a back rub or playing music may provide some comfort, they do not directly address the issue caused by the fetal head's position. Similarly, a foot massage may offer relaxation but may not significantly relieve the specific discomfort arising from the posterior fetal position and the associated lower back pain.
A nurse is caring for a preterm newborn who is in an incubator to maintain a neutral thermal environment. The father of the newborn asks the nurse why this is necessary. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because preterm newborns have immature temperature regulation mechanisms, making it difficult for them to maintain their body temperature. An incubator helps maintain a stable thermal environment. Choice A is incorrect as the body surface area is not the primary reason for needing an incubator. Choice B is incorrect because brown fat in preterm newborns actually helps generate heat. Choice D is incorrect as the purpose of the incubator is not to dry sweat but to regulate the newborn's temperature.
When educating a pregnant client about potential complications, which manifestation should the nurse emphasize reporting to the provider promptly?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy is a concerning sign that could indicate serious complications like miscarriage or placental issues. Prompt reporting to the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and management to ensure the best outcomes for both the mother and the baby. Swelling of the ankles (choice B), heartburn after eating (choice C), and lightheadedness when lying on the back (choice D) are common discomforts during pregnancy but are not typically associated with serious complications that require immediate attention.
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