ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. Which dietary instruction is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase the intake of potassium
- B. Limit the intake of phosphorus-rich foods
- C. Encourage the intake of protein-rich foods
- D. Advise the client to increase fluid intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Limiting the intake of phosphorus-rich foods is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease. In individuals with chronic kidney disease, the kidneys cannot filter phosphorus effectively, leading to a buildup in the blood. This can result in bone and heart problems. Therefore, reducing phosphorus intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium intake may be harmful as potassium levels can accumulate in the blood with impaired kidney function. Encouraging protein-rich foods may not be suitable as excessive protein intake can strain the kidneys. Advising to increase fluid intake should be done cautiously as individuals with chronic kidney disease may need to restrict fluids based on their stage of the disease.
2. A client reports difficulty having a bowel movement. What is the most appropriate intervention?
- A. Administer a laxative to relieve constipation
- B. Encourage the client to increase fiber intake
- C. Advise the client to rest in bed to avoid straining
- D. Encourage the client to exercise to stimulate bowel movement
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to increase fiber intake. Fiber helps promote regular bowel movements by adding bulk to the stool, making it easier to pass. Administering a laxative (Choice A) should not be the first-line intervention as it can lead to dependency and may not address the underlying cause of constipation. Advising the client to rest in bed (Choice C) may worsen constipation as physical activity helps stimulate bowel movements. Encouraging the client to exercise (Choice D) is beneficial, but increasing fiber intake is more directly related to improving bowel movements in this scenario.
3. A client with COPD is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
- B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing
- C. Position the client in high Fowler's position
- D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with COPD is to encourage pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing helps maintain airway patency by preventing the collapse of small airways during exhalation, improving breathing efficiency. Administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula may be appropriate for some COPD patients but is not the priority intervention. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position may help improve breathing but is not as specific as pursed-lip breathing for COPD. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing may be beneficial in other respiratory conditions, but it is not the most effective intervention for COPD.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. HbA1c level greater than 8%.
- B. Blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime.
- C. Blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast.
- D. HbA1c level less than 7%.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An HbA1c level less than 7% indicates good long-term glucose control for clients with diabetes. This goal reflects optimal glycemic control and reduces the risk of long-term complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent appropriate goals for managing type 1 diabetes in an adolescent. An HbA1c level greater than 8% (choice A) signifies poor glucose control, while a blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime (choice B) and a blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast (choice C) are not within the target ranges for safe and effective diabetes management.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Elevated blood pressure.
- C. Furrows in the tongue.
- D. Polyuria.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Furrows in the tongue.' Dehydration commonly presents with furrows in the tongue due to decreased oral moisture. This physical finding indicates dehydration as the tongue loses moisture and becomes dry. Choice A, 'Bradycardia,' is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, tachycardia may be present as a compensatory mechanism. Elevated blood pressure, as mentioned in choice B, is not a typical finding in dehydration; in fact, dehydration often leads to a decrease in blood pressure. Polyuria, as in choice D, is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes mellitus or diabetes insipidus, rather than dehydration.
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