which dietary instruction is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024

1. Which dietary instruction is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?

A. Increase the intake of potassium
B. Limit the intake of phosphorus-rich foods
C. Encourage the intake of protein-rich foods
D. Advise the client to increase fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Limiting the intake of phosphorus-rich foods is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease. In individuals with chronic kidney disease, the kidneys cannot filter phosphorus effectively, leading to a buildup in the blood. This can result in bone and heart problems. Therefore, reducing phosphorus intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium intake may be harmful as potassium levels can accumulate in the blood with impaired kidney function. Encouraging protein-rich foods may not be suitable as excessive protein intake can strain the kidneys. Advising to increase fluid intake should be done cautiously as individuals with chronic kidney disease may need to restrict fluids based on their stage of the disease.

2. What are the early signs of diabetic ketoacidosis?

A. Excessive thirst and fruity breath odor
B. Weight loss and increased urination
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Hypoglycemia and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Excessive thirst and fruity breath odor. Diabetic ketoacidosis presents with these early signs due to ketone buildup in the body. Choice B, weight loss and increased urination, are more characteristic of uncontrolled diabetes but not specific to diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, nausea and vomiting, can occur in diabetic ketoacidosis but are not as early or specific as excessive thirst and fruity breath odor. Choice D, hypoglycemia and fatigue, are not typical signs of diabetic ketoacidosis; rather, diabetic ketoacidosis usually presents with hyperglycemia.

3. A nurse on an acute unit has received a change of shift report for 4 clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

A. A client who is 1 hr postoperative and has hypoactive bowel sounds.
B. A client who has a fractured left tibia and pallor in the affected extremity.
C. A client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses.
D. A client who has an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because pallor in an extremity after a fracture could indicate compromised circulation, making it a priority for assessment. Choice A is not the priority as hypoactive bowel sounds in a client 1 hr postoperative, while concerning, do not indicate a life-threatening condition. Choice C, a client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses, indicates good perfusion and does not require immediate attention. Choice D, a client with an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin, may require further assessment but is not as urgent as the client with potential compromised circulation in choice B.

4. What are the risk factors for stroke, and how can it be prevented?

A. High cholesterol and hypertension; prevent with regular exercise
B. Obesity and smoking; prevent with medication and weight loss
C. Diabetes and alcohol consumption; prevent with regular checkups
D. Lack of exercise and poor diet; prevent with lifestyle changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. High cholesterol and hypertension are significant risk factors for stroke. Regular exercise is an effective way to prevent stroke by managing these risk factors. Choice B is incorrect as while obesity and smoking are risk factors, preventing stroke through medication and weight loss is not the primary method. Choice C is incorrect as diabetes and alcohol consumption are risk factors, but preventing stroke through regular checkups is not as direct as managing cholesterol and hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as lack of exercise and a poor diet are indeed risk factors, but the prevention of stroke through lifestyle changes needs to specifically address high cholesterol and hypertension.

5. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hypertensive crisis?

A. Administer antihypertensive medications and monitor blood pressure
B. Provide a high-sodium diet and fluid restriction
C. Administer diuretics and provide oxygen therapy
D. Provide IV fluids and monitor for kidney failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis, the immediate goal is to lower blood pressure to prevent organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications helps achieve this goal efficiently. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and adjust medication as needed. Providing a high-sodium diet and fluid restriction (Choice B) can exacerbate hypertension by increasing blood pressure. Diuretics and oxygen therapy (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for hypertensive crisis, as the priority is rapid blood pressure reduction. Providing IV fluids and monitoring for kidney failure (Choice D) are not primary interventions for managing hypertensive crisis; the focus is on blood pressure control and organ protection.