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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for ergotamine. The nurse should recognize that ergotamine is administered to treat which of the following conditions?
- A. Raynaud's phenomenon
- B. Migraine headaches
- C. Ulcerative colitis
- D. Anemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ergotamine is used to treat migraine headaches by constricting blood vessels in the brain. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A, Raynaud's phenomenon, is incorrect as ergotamine is not indicated for this condition. Choice C, Ulcerative colitis, is incorrect as ergotamine is not used to treat this gastrointestinal disorder. Choice D, Anemia, is incorrect as ergotamine is not prescribed for anemia.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about metoclopramide. The nurse should include in the teaching that which of the following conditions is a contraindication to this medication?
- A. Hyperthyroidism
- B. Intestinal obstruction
- C. Glaucoma
- D. Low blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intestinal obstruction. Metoclopramide is contraindicated in clients with intestinal obstruction due to its prokinetic effects, which could exacerbate the condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because metoclopramide is not contraindicated in hyperthyroidism, glaucoma, or low blood pressure. Hyperthyroidism, glaucoma, and low blood pressure are not specific contraindications for metoclopramide use, and this medication is commonly prescribed for conditions like gastroesophageal reflux disease and diabetic gastroparesis.
3. A client with congestive heart failure taking digoxin reports nausea and refuses to eat breakfast. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Encourage the client to eat the toast on the breakfast tray.
- B. Administer an antiemetic.
- C. Inform the client's provider.
- D. Check the client's apical pulse.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to check the client's apical pulse. Nausea can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, and one of the early signs of digoxin toxicity is changes in the pulse rate. By checking the client's apical pulse, the nurse can assess if the digoxin level is too high. Encouraging the client to eat or administering an antiemetic may not address the underlying issue of digoxin toxicity. While informing the provider is important, assessing the client's condition through checking the apical pulse should be the immediate priority.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has a prescription for filgrastim. The healthcare professional should recognize that an increase in which of the following values indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. Erythrocyte count
- B. Neutrophil count
- C. Lymphocyte count
- D. Thrombocyte count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Filgrastim is a medication used to stimulate the production of neutrophils in patients with neutropenia. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in fighting off infections. Therefore, an increase in neutrophil count would indicate a therapeutic effect of filgrastim. The other options, such as erythrocyte count (red blood cells), lymphocyte count, and thrombocyte count (platelets), are not directly affected by filgrastim and would not indicate a therapeutic effect of this medication.
5. A client with a severe urinary tract infection (UTI) asks why both ciprofloxacin and phenazopyridine are needed. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Phenazopyridine decreases adverse effects of ciprofloxacin.
- B. Combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin shortens the course of therapy.
- C. The use of phenazopyridine allows for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin.
- D. Ciprofloxacin treats the infection, and phenazopyridine treats pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic that treats the infection, while phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that relieves pain. Choice A is incorrect because phenazopyridine does not decrease adverse effects of ciprofloxacin; it primarily addresses pain. Choice B is incorrect because combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin does not shorten the course of therapy; they serve different purposes. Choice C is incorrect because the use of phenazopyridine does not allow for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin; they have independent roles in UTI management.
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