Free ATI LPN Capstone practice for PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A (ATI LPN). Answer 130 nursing exam-style questions with rationales,
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a flu vaccine. Which of the following should the healthcare professional verify?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The healthcare professional should verify the client's vaccination history to ensure they are due for the flu vaccine. Verifying the client's age (choice A) is important for other vaccines but not specifically for the flu vaccine. While allergy to eggs (choice B) is relevant as the flu vaccine is traditionally produced in eggs, it is not the top priority for verification. The client's weight (choice D) is not directly related to the administration of the flu vaccine.
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.
A nurse is assisting with mass casualty triage following an explosion at a local factory. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as the priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a mass casualty situation, the nurse should prioritize the client with indications of hypovolemic shock. Hypovolemic shock is an immediate life-threatening condition resulting from severe blood loss, which can lead to organ failure and death. Prompt identification and treatment of hypovolemic shock are crucial to prevent further deterioration. While clients with massive head trauma, full-thickness burns, and open fractures require urgent care, hypovolemic shock takes precedence due to its rapid progression to a critical state.
A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about caring for a client who has a prescription for gemfibrozil. The nurse should instruct the newly licensed nurse to monitor which of the following laboratory tests?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Liver function. Gemfibrozil can lead to hepatotoxicity, making it crucial to monitor liver function tests. Monitoring platelet count (choice A) is not specifically indicated for gemfibrozil. Electrolyte levels (choice B) and thyroid function (choice C) are not directly affected by gemfibrozil, so they are not the primary laboratory tests to monitor in this case.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Furosemide is a diuretic that does not require a reduction in fish consumption. Therefore, the statement 'I will limit my intake of fish' indicates a misunderstanding of dietary considerations. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate actions related to furosemide therapy. Taking pills with food or milk can help reduce stomach upset, daily weight monitoring is crucial due to the diuretic effect of furosemide, and notifying the nurse about muscle cramps is important as it can be a sign of electrolyte imbalance, a potential side effect of furosemide.
A nurse is caring for a client at 32 weeks gestation with a history of cardiac disease. Which position should the nurse recommend to promote optimal cardiac output?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The left lateral position is the correct choice to promote optimal cardiac output in a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation with cardiac disease. This position improves venous return and decreases pressure on the vena cava, helping optimize cardiac output. Standing (choice B) would not be recommended as it may decrease venous return. The supine position (choice C) should be avoided in pregnant clients with cardiac disease as it can compress the vena cava, reducing cardiac output and potentially causing hypotension. The chest (choice A) is not a valid position recommendation for optimizing cardiac output in this scenario.
A client just received their first dose of lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to provide standby assistance when the client gets out of bed. Lisinopril can cause hypotension, especially after the first dose, which can lead to dizziness and falls. Standby assistance helps prevent potential injury. Placing the client on cardiac monitoring (choice A) or monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) are not typically necessary after the first dose of lisinopril unless specific symptoms are present. Encouraging foods high in potassium (choice D) is not directly related to the immediate concern of postural hypotension associated with lisinopril.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a sealed radiation implant and is to remain in the hospital for one week. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to wear a dosimeter film badge while in the client's room. Wearing a dosimeter helps monitor the cumulative radiation exposure of healthcare workers, ensuring their safety during care. Removing dirty linens, limiting visitor time, and maintaining a distance from the client are not directly related to radiation safety measures and are not necessary in this scenario.
A client with a severe urinary tract infection (UTI) asks why both ciprofloxacin and phenazopyridine are needed. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic that treats the infection, while phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that relieves pain. Choice A is incorrect because phenazopyridine does not decrease adverse effects of ciprofloxacin; it primarily addresses pain. Choice B is incorrect because combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin does not shorten the course of therapy; they serve different purposes. Choice C is incorrect because the use of phenazopyridine does not allow for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin; they have independent roles in UTI management.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving radiation treatments for cancer. The client states he is experiencing dryness, redness, and scaling at the treatment area. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should instruct the client to liberally apply prescribed lotion to the treatment area. Prescribed hydrating lotions help soothe and protect irradiated skin, reducing dryness, redness, and scaling. Sitting in the sun can further damage the skin. Applying moist heat may exacerbate the skin condition. Washing the area with antimicrobial soap can be too harsh and further irritate the skin.
A nurse is assessing a client with pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A paradoxical pulse is a sign of cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis that requires immediate intervention. It results from decreased cardiac output due to increased pressure in the pericardial sac. Reporting this finding promptly allows for timely treatment to prevent further deterioration. Dependent edema and substernal chest pain are common in pericarditis but are not as urgent as a paradoxical pulse. A pericardial friction rub is a classic finding in pericarditis and indicates inflammation but is not as critical as a paradoxical pulse.
A nurse is teaching a client with gestational diabetes about blood sugar control. Which of the following statements indicates understanding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'I should test my blood sugar before each meal.' Monitoring blood sugar before meals is crucial for managing gestational diabetes as it helps in understanding how different foods affect blood sugar levels and adjusting insulin doses accordingly. Choice B is incorrect as food choices should be monitored carefully, not just relying on insulin. Choice C is incorrect because while it is important to manage carbohydrate intake, completely avoiding all carbohydrates is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as blood sugar monitoring throughout the day is essential, not just at bedtime, to ensure proper control and management of gestational diabetes.
A nurse is preparing to assist a provider with the insertion of a nontunneled percutaneous central venous catheter into a client's subclavian vein. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when assisting with the insertion of a nontunneled percutaneous central venous catheter into the subclavian vein is to place the client in Trendelenburg position. This position helps distend the veins and reduces the risk of air embolism during the insertion procedure. Option A, positioning the client in a high-Fowler's position, would not be appropriate as it does not facilitate venous distention. Option C, placing a rolled towel under the client's neck, is not directly related to the procedure and does not serve a specific purpose in this context. Option D, assisting the client into a side-lying position, is also not the correct choice as Trendelenburg position is preferred for this procedure to aid in vein distention.
A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter into a female client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when inserting an indwelling urinary catheter into a female client is to inflate the catheter balloon after urine begins to flow. Inflating the balloon before urine starts flowing can lead to incorrect placement in the urethra, causing trauma. Cleansing the labia and meatus should be done before the insertion, but the crucial step of inflating the balloon should occur after the catheter is correctly placed. Asking the client to bear down is not necessary during catheter insertion.
A nurse is reviewing the medication class, benzodiazepines. The nurse would use caution when administering benzodiazepines to which of the clients below?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Benzodiazepines can increase intraocular pressure, which is why they must be used cautiously in patients with glaucoma. In clients with this condition, benzodiazepines can potentially worsen symptoms and lead to further complications involving the eyes. Therefore, administering benzodiazepines to a client with glaucoma should be done with caution. Choices B, C, and D are not directly contraindicated with benzodiazepines, making them less likely to cause harm compared to administering to a client with glaucoma.
A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing neutropenia. Which of the following should the nurse include in this client's education?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with neutropenia have a weakened immune system, making them susceptible to infections. Avoiding crowded events helps reduce the risk of exposure to pathogens, thereby minimizing the chance of infections. Tracking oral temperature is important for detecting fever early, which is a sign of infection and requires immediate medical attention. While gardening can be a good form of exercise, clients with neutropenia should avoid it due to the risk of exposure to bacteria and fungi present in soil. Eating fresh fruits and vegetables is generally encouraged for overall health but may carry a risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with neutropenia.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Clients taking lisinopril should avoid potassium-rich foods because ACE inhibitors can increase potassium levels, potentially leading to hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements. Clients should notify their doctor if they develop a cough as it can indicate a potential side effect of lisinopril. Avoiding salt substitutes is important as they may contain potassium chloride, which can also raise potassium levels. Monitoring blood pressure regularly is essential when taking an antihypertensive medication like lisinopril.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 250 mg of an antibiotic IM. Available is 3 g/5 mL. How many mL would the healthcare professional administer per dose?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the mL to be administered, convert 250 mg to grams (0.25 g). Then, set up a proportion: (0.25 g / 3 g) x 5 mL = 0.4167 mL, which rounds to 0.4 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional would administer 0.4 mL per dose. Choice B (0.3 mL) is incorrect because it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice C (0.5 mL) is incorrect as it does not consider the correct conversion and calculation. Choice D (0.6 mL) is incorrect as it provides a value higher than the accurate calculation.
A patient with chronic kidney disease reports feeling light-headed after taking their medication. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Patients with chronic kidney disease are prone to orthostatic hypotension, which can cause dizziness. To prevent this, the nurse should instruct the patient to stand up slowly. Options A, B, and D do not directly address the issue of orthostatic hypotension and dizziness in this scenario.
A nurse is providing education on the use of aspirin. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'It can increase the risk of bleeding.' Aspirin is known to have antiplatelet effects and can increase the risk of bleeding, especially if taken in high doses or for prolonged periods. Choice B is incorrect because aspirin is not safe for children due to the risk of Reye's syndrome. Choice C is incorrect because aspirin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin, like any medication, can have side effects, such as gastrointestinal bleeding, ulcers, or allergic reactions.
A charge nurse is preparing an educational session about addictive disorders for nursing staff. Which of the following should the nurse include as an etiological factor of addictive disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: All of the above. Addiction is influenced by various factors, including low self-esteem, family history of addiction, and specific personality traits. Low self-esteem can lead individuals to seek solace in substances, a family history of addiction can increase the likelihood of developing addictive behaviors due to genetic and environmental factors, and certain personality disorders may contribute to addictive tendencies. Therefore, all the factors listed in choices A, B, and C can play a role in the development of addictive disorders. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because addictive disorders are multifactorial, and it is essential to consider a combination of influences rather than isolating a single factor.
A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following food choices should the healthcare provider recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: A chicken breast. Chicken breast is low in potassium, making it a safe option for clients with chronic kidney disease who need to limit their potassium intake. Foods like bananas and orange juice are high in potassium, which should be avoided or limited by individuals with chronic kidney disease to prevent further kidney damage.
A nurse is providing education on the use of calcium carbonate. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for constipation.' Calcium carbonate can cause constipation as a side effect. Educating clients on dietary adjustments, such as increasing fluid intake and fiber consumption, can help alleviate this issue. Choice A is incorrect because calcium carbonate supplementation is used to treat hypocalcemia, not cause it. Choice C is incorrect because calcium carbonate should be taken with food for optimal absorption. Choice D is incorrect because calcium carbonate is available over the counter, not as a prescription medication.
A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 4 mg/kg/day PO divided into 2 equal doses daily to a toddler who weighs 22 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the correct dose, first, convert the toddler's weight from pounds to kilograms: 22 lb / 2.2 lb/kg = 10 kg. Next, multiply the weight in kilograms by the dosage: 4 mg/kg x 10 kg = 40 mg/day. Since the total daily dose is divided into 2 equal doses, each dose would be 20 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 mg. Choice A (10 mg) is incorrect because it does not account for the correct weight-based dosage. Choice C (30 mg) and Choice D (40 mg) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the dose based on the weight of the toddler and the prescribed dosage per kg.
A community health nurse is reviewing primary prevention for West Nile virus with a group of patients in a rural health clinic. What instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Eliminate areas of standing water.' Standing water provides breeding grounds for mosquitoes, which spread West Nile virus. By eliminating standing water, individuals can reduce the risk of mosquito breeding and the transmission of the virus. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Wearing a mask when outdoors, ensuring food is cooked thoroughly, and avoiding contact with sick individuals are not directly related to primary prevention strategies for West Nile virus.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not being adequately perfused, leading to reduced urine production. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia, not directly related to cardiac output. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) can be caused by medications or sympathetic nervous system stimulation but are not specific to decreased cardiac output.
A nurse is caring for a client who sprained his ankle 12 hours ago. Which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse question?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should question the prescription to apply heat to the affected extremity for 45 minutes. Heat should not be applied in the first 48 hours after an acute injury, as it can increase swelling. Cold therapy is more appropriate initially. Choices A, C, and D are appropriate actions in the care of a client with a sprained ankle. Elevating the affected extremity helps reduce swelling, wrapping it with a compression dressing provides support, and assessing sensation, movement, and pulse every 4 hours is important to monitor for complications.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV diltiazem for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem can cause further lowering of blood pressure, so it should not be administered if the client is already hypotensive. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial before giving diltiazem. Choice B, tachycardia, is not a contraindication for diltiazem use; in fact, diltiazem is used to slow down the heart rate. Choice C, decreased level of consciousness, may indicate other issues but is not a direct contraindication for diltiazem. Choice D, history of diuretic use, is not a contraindication by itself; however, caution should be exercised when diltiazem is given with diuretics due to potential interactions.
A healthcare professional is teaching a client about reducing the risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which factor increases the risk of UTI?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using perfumed toilet paper can irritate the urinary tract and increase the risk of UTI, so it should be avoided. Wearing underwear with a cotton crotch (Choice A) is a preventive measure as cotton allows for better air circulation and reduces moisture, lowering the risk of UTIs. Wiping from front to back (Choice B) helps prevent the introduction of bacteria from the anal region to the urinary tract. Urinating after intercourse (Choice D) can help flush out bacteria introduced during sexual activity, thereby reducing the risk of UTIs.
A nurse is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) immunization to a child. Which is a contraindication for this vaccine?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Recent blood transfusion. A recent blood transfusion can interfere with the effectiveness of the MMR vaccine, making it a contraindication. Choice B, allergy to penicillin, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice C, minor acute illness, is not a contraindication unless the child has a moderate to severe illness. Choice D, low-grade fever, is not a contraindication as long as the child does not have a moderate to severe febrile illness.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which finding indicates the need for hemodialysis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 5 mg/dL is significantly elevated and indicates the need for hemodialysis to help filter waste products from the blood. Elevated creatinine levels suggest impaired kidney function and the inability to effectively filter waste from the body. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate the need for immediate hemodialysis in a client with chronic kidney disease.
A client is taking levothyroxine. Which of the following findings should indicate that the medication is effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Weight loss. Levothyroxine is used to treat hypothyroidism, which is characterized by symptoms such as weight gain. Therefore, weight loss in a client taking levothyroxine indicates that the medication is effective in managing hypothyroidism. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because levothyroxine primarily affects thyroid function and metabolism, not blood pressure, seizures, or inflammation.
A nurse is preparing to administer TPN with added fat supplements to a client who has malnutrition. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer TPN with fat supplements is to check for an allergy to eggs. The lipid emulsion in TPN often contains egg phospholipids, so screening for egg allergies is crucial to prevent any adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because TPN should not be piggybacked with 0.9% sodium chloride to avoid any interactions or dilution of the TPN solution. Option C is incorrect as discussing the TPN solution with the client is not the priority when preparing to administer it. Option D is incorrect as monitoring for hypoglycemia, although important in TPN administration, is not specifically related to the addition of fat supplements.
A client in the second trimester of pregnancy asks how to treat constipation. Which of the following should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Drink hot water with lemon juice each morning. Drinking hot water with lemon juice can help stimulate bowel movements, making it a natural and safe recommendation for pregnant clients experiencing constipation. Choice A is incorrect because reducing vitamin and supplement intake may not directly address constipation. Choice B, eating 15 g of fiber per day, could be helpful but may not be as effective as the correct answer for immediate relief. Choice C, consuming 48 ounces of water daily, is essential for overall health but may not be as directly effective as the correct answer in alleviating constipation.
A healthcare provider is caring for four clients. Which of the following tasks can the healthcare provider delegate to an assistive personnel?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Performing chest compressions during cardiac resuscitation is a critical life-saving intervention that can be delegated to an assistive personnel during an emergency. This task requires immediate action and basic training, making it appropriate for delegation. Performing a dressing change for a new amputee involves specialized knowledge and skills, typically performed by licensed healthcare providers. Assessing the effectiveness of medication requires critical thinking and decision-making skills that are within the scope of a licensed healthcare provider. Providing discharge instructions involves educating the patient on post-discharge care and follow-up, which is typically done by a healthcare provider to ensure clear communication and understanding.
A nurse in a provider's office is interviewing a client who is requesting an oral contraceptive. Which of the following findings in the client's history is a contraindication to the use of combination oral contraceptives?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Impaired liver function is a contraindication to combination oral contraceptives. The liver metabolizes hormones, and any impairment can affect the metabolism of hormones, potentially leading to imbalances or toxicity. Thyroid disease, allergy to penicillin, and abnormal blood glucose levels are not contraindications to combination oral contraceptives.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of depression. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing a client for signs of depression, healthcare professionals should look for changes in sleep patterns and weight loss. These are common symptoms associated with depression. Increased energy (choice A) is not typically a sign of depression, as individuals with depression often experience fatigue and a lack of energy. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect, making choice D the correct answer.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client for potential complications after surgery. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Decreased urine output can indicate renal complications or dehydration, which are common post-surgical complications. Monitoring urine output is crucial for detecting early signs of kidney dysfunction or fluid imbalances. Increased appetite, improved mobility, and normal temperature are not typical signs of immediate post-surgical complications and would not be the priority for monitoring in this case.
A nurse is caring for the mother of an adolescent who was killed in a motor-vehicle crash after a school event. The mother states, 'I never should have let him take the car. It's all my fault!' Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice C is the most appropriate response because it encourages the mother to express her feelings and explore the reasons behind her guilt. This approach allows the mother to process her emotions effectively and address her grief. Choices A and B do not directly address the mother's feelings of guilt and may not help her work through her emotions. Choice D acknowledges the mother's emotional state but does not delve into the underlying issues causing her guilt and grief.
A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following findings indicates she is dehydrated?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 is indicative of dehydration as it reflects concentrated urine. Choice A is incorrect as a specific gravity of 1.020 is within the normal range. Choice C, decreased skin turgor, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as urine specific gravity. Choice D, decreased heart rate, is not typically a direct indicator of dehydration.
A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, decreased deep tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity. Magnesium toxicity can lead to respiratory depression and other serious complications, requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased blood pressure, tachypnea, and hyperreflexia are not typical findings associated with magnesium toxicity.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has a prescription for filgrastim. The healthcare professional should recognize that an increase in which of the following values indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Filgrastim is a medication used to stimulate the production of neutrophils in patients with neutropenia. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in fighting off infections. Therefore, an increase in neutrophil count would indicate a therapeutic effect of filgrastim. The other options, such as erythrocyte count (red blood cells), lymphocyte count, and thrombocyte count (platelets), are not directly affected by filgrastim and would not indicate a therapeutic effect of this medication.
A postpartum client with AB negative blood whose newborn is B positive requires what intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention is to administer Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery. This is essential to prevent the mother from forming antibodies against Rh-positive blood, which could cause complications in future pregnancies. Choice B is incorrect as the administration should be immediate postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as Rh immune globulin is needed for each Rh-incompatible pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as only the mother, who is Rh-negative, needs Rh immune globulin.
A nurse is reviewing dietary assessment findings for a client who is Jewish and observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect to find?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. According to kosher dietary laws, meat and dairy products cannot be consumed together. This practice stems from the prohibition in Jewish law against cooking a young animal in its mother's milk. Therefore, the nurse should expect to find that meat and dairy products are eaten separately. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Leavened bread is not eaten during Passover (Choice A), shellfish is not consumed in the kosher diet (Choice B), and fasting from meat does not occur during Hanukkah (Choice D).
A nurse is teaching a client about the dietary management of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Drink peppermint tea.' Peppermint tea can help relax the smooth muscles of the gastrointestinal tract, reducing symptoms of IBS, such as bloating and abdominal discomfort. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing fiber intake is not recommended for IBS management as fiber can help regulate bowel movements. Increasing foods high in fat can exacerbate symptoms of IBS, as high-fat foods can be harder to digest. Avoiding foods with gluten is more relevant for individuals with gluten sensitivity or celiac disease, not specifically for IBS management.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is experiencing a thyroid storm. Which of the following is an expected finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a thyroid storm, which is a severe complication of hyperthyroidism, hypertension is an expected finding. Other common manifestations include tachycardia, hyperthermia, and agitation. Hypothermia (choice A) is not expected in a thyroid storm as the body temperature is usually elevated due to increased metabolic rate. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typical in a thyroid storm; instead, tachycardia is more common. Lethargy (choice D) is not a typical finding in a thyroid storm, as clients are usually agitated due to excess thyroid hormone levels.
A client with staphylococcus epidermidis is prescribed vancomycin. Identify the adverse effect associated with this antibiotic therapy.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct adverse effect associated with vancomycin therapy is an infusion reaction, known as Red Man Syndrome. This reaction presents with rashes, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. It is essential to administer vancomycin over at least 60 minutes to prevent these symptoms. Hepatotoxicity, constipation, and immunosuppression are not commonly associated with vancomycin use. Ototoxicity and renal toxicity are significant risks with prolonged vancomycin therapy.
When resolving a conflict, which statement made by the charge nurse is an example of smoothing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because it exemplifies smoothing, a conflict resolution strategy where the charge nurse reassures the staff nurse of their capabilities. Choice B offers to take over the assignment, which is more of a compromising strategy. Choice C suggests switching assignments, which aligns with compromising rather than smoothing. Choice D proposes a discussion in a private setting, indicating a collaborating approach rather than smoothing.
A nurse in an emergency department completes an assessment on an adolescent client with conduct disorder. The client threatened suicide to a teacher at school. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Tell me how often you drink alcohol.' Alcohol use can exacerbate aggressive behaviors and is relevant for the assessment of suicide risk in adolescents with conduct disorders. Choices A, B, and D are unrelated to the assessment of suicide risk in this scenario and do not provide information that directly impacts the client's risk assessment.
A nurse is caring for a client prescribed montelukast. Which of the following should the nurse include in teaching related to this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to advise the client to take the medication once daily at bedtime. Montelukast, a leukotriene modifier, is used for long-term therapy of asthma in adults and children, as well as to prevent exercise-induced bronchospasm. It should be taken once daily in the evening for optimal effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because montelukast is not for acute management but for long-term therapy. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to avoid dairy products while taking montelukast. Choice D is incorrect and potentially harmful advice; clients should never double up on doses if they forget to take a medication.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. What is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Urinary incontinence is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries due to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants. Dehydration (choice A) can contribute to skin dryness but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries. Poor nutrition (choice C) can affect wound healing but is not specifically linked to pressure injuries. Poor tissue perfusion (choice D) can increase the risk of tissue damage but is not as directly associated with pressure injuries as urinary incontinence.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for an antidepressant. The client reports experiencing dry mouth. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the client to chew sugarless gum. Chewing sugarless gum can help alleviate dry mouth by stimulating saliva production, which is a common side effect of many antidepressants. Decreasing fluid intake (choice A) is not recommended as it can worsen dry mouth. Avoiding mouthwash (choice C) is not as effective as chewing gum in stimulating saliva. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice D) is not directly related to managing dry mouth caused by antidepressants.
A nurse is assessing a client who has Clostridium difficile (C. diff) infection. Which infection control measure should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to place the client in a private room. Clostridium difficile (C. diff) infection requires contact precautions, which include isolating the client in a private room to prevent the spread of infection to others. Wearing a face shield may be necessary in certain situations for protection but is not the primary measure for C. diff. Placing the client in a negative pressure room is not specifically indicated for C. diff unless the client has additional respiratory issues. Using alcohol-based hand rub following client care is not sufficient for C. diff control; thorough handwashing with soap and water is recommended due to the spore-forming nature of C. diff.
A nurse is planning care for a client following gastric bypass surgery. The nurse should include which of the following dietary instructions when preparing the client for discharge?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Start each meal with a protein source.' Protein is crucial for healing and maintaining muscle mass after gastric bypass surgery, making it essential to include in each meal. Choice B is incorrect because immediately after surgery, the focus is typically on a low-fiber diet to aid in healing. Choice C is unrelated to the nutritional needs following gastric bypass surgery. Choice D is also incorrect as patients recovering from gastric bypass surgery may require more frequent, smaller meals to meet their nutritional needs.
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at risk for cardiovascular disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Oatmeal is high in fiber, which helps lower cholesterol levels, making it a heart-healthy food option for clients at risk for cardiovascular disease. Fried chicken, bacon, and whole milk are high in saturated fats and cholesterol, which can increase the risk of heart disease and should be limited in the diet of individuals at risk for cardiovascular issues.
A nurse is caring for a client with Alzheimer's disease. Which action should the nurse include in the care plan to support the client's cognitive function?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Placing a daily calendar in the kitchen is beneficial for clients with Alzheimer's disease as it helps in orienting them to time and enhances cognitive function. This visual aid can assist in keeping track of days and activities. Choice B, replacing buttoned clothing with zippered items, is more related to promoting independence in dressing rather than directly supporting cognitive function. Choice C, replacing carpet with hardwood floors, focuses on safety and mobility rather than cognitive function. Choice D, creating variation in the daily routine, may be helpful for engagement and stimulation but does not directly address cognitive function as effectively as using a daily calendar.
A nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a client who reports fatigue and cold intolerance. The client has an increased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level and a decreased total T3 and T4 level. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Levothyroxine is the correct answer. In this scenario, the client's elevated TSH and decreased T3 and T4 levels indicate hypothyroidism, a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough hormones. Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of thyroid hormone that is used to replace or supplement the body's naturally produced thyroid hormones. Methimazole and Propylthiouracil are used to treat hyperthyroidism by reducing the production of thyroid hormones. Somatropin is a growth hormone used to treat growth hormone deficiency and other conditions unrelated to thyroid disorders.
A client has a new prescription for oxcarbazepine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Serum sodium levels. Oxcarbazepine can lead to hyponatremia, making it crucial to monitor serum sodium levels. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with oxcarbazepine use. Blood glucose (choice C) monitoring is more relevant in medications affecting blood sugar levels. Heart rate (choice D) is not directly impacted by oxcarbazepine.
A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being educated about their diet by a nurse. Which of the following food selections indicates that the client understands the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Rice with black beans. Clients with hepatic encephalopathy should limit protein intake to prevent the buildup of ammonia. Plant-based proteins are preferred over animal-based proteins in this condition. Rice with black beans provides a good balance of nutrients and is a suitable choice for a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they contain animal-based proteins, which should be limited in clients with hepatic encephalopathy.
A client at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nifedipine is the correct choice in this scenario. It is a calcium channel blocker that helps suppress uterine contractions and halt preterm labor. Nifedipine is commonly used to manage preterm labor in pregnant women by relaxing the smooth muscle of the uterus. Oxytocin (Choice A) is used to induce or augment labor, not to inhibit contractions. Dinoprostone (Choice C) and Misoprostol (Choice D) are prostaglandins used for cervical ripening and induction of labor, not for stopping preterm labor.
A client who is 38 weeks pregnant with herpes simplex virus is admitted to labor and delivery. What question should the nurse ask?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct question the nurse should ask the client who is 38 weeks pregnant with herpes simplex virus is 'Do you have any active lesions?' This is crucial because active herpes lesions may necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal infection. Choice B, 'Have your membranes ruptured?' is related to assessing for the rupture of membranes, not specific to the client's herpes infection. Choice C, 'How far apart are your contractions?' is related to monitoring labor progress. Choice D, 'Are you positive for beta strep?' is related to group B streptococcus screening, which is important but not the priority in this scenario.
A nurse is assessing a newborn following a vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life is considered pathological and may indicate hemolytic disease or another serious condition, requiring further investigation.
A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed methadone. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because methadone typically causes sedation and respiratory depression, not trouble sleeping. The statement about trouble sleeping indicates a need for further teaching. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because understanding that methadone slows breathing, avoiding alcohol while taking the medication, and changing positions slowly to prevent dizziness are all appropriate client statements when prescribed methadone.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of dehydration. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Dry mucous membranes are a classic sign of dehydration. In dehydration, the body loses more water than it takes in, leading to dryness of mucous membranes like the mouth and throat. Edema (choice A) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in the body's tissues, which is not a typical sign of dehydration. Weight gain (choice C) is also not a common sign of dehydration; in fact, dehydration usually leads to weight loss. Increased urination (choice D) is more indicative of conditions like diabetes or diuretic use, not dehydration.
A client with lactose intolerance, who has eliminated dairy products from the diet, should increase consumption of which of the following foods?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium, which is important for clients with lactose intolerance who are not consuming dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as spinach and are not the best choices for meeting the calcium needs of clients with lactose intolerance.
A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Urine specific gravity of 1.035. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 indicates dehydration as the kidneys conserve water in response to dehydration. Choice B, oliguria, refers to decreased urine output, which can be a sign of dehydration but is not specific to it. Choice C, increased urine concentration, is a general term and does not directly indicate dehydration. Choice D, dry mucous membranes, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for amphotericin B. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct. Amphotericin B is known for its nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Monitoring kidney function is crucial to detect any signs of nephrotoxicity early. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because hyperkalemia, hypertension, and constipation are not typically associated with amphotericin B use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for nephrotoxicity.
A nurse is teaching about measures to promote sleep with insomnia. What statement indicates understanding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Reducing fluid intake before bedtime helps prevent interruptions in sleep due to bathroom visits, which is crucial for individuals with insomnia. Taking naps throughout the day (choice A) may disrupt nighttime sleep. Drinking coffee (choice C) is counterproductive as it contains caffeine, which can interfere with falling asleep. Increasing screen time before bed (choice D) can negatively impact sleep quality due to the stimulating effects of screens.
A nurse is teaching a client who is taking prednisone about the adverse effects of this medication. Which of the following should the nurse emphasize?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct adverse effect of prednisone that the nurse should emphasize is hyperglycemia. Prednisone is known to increase blood sugar levels, leading to hyperglycemia. While weight gain and other metabolic changes are possible side effects, hyperglycemia is a more critical concern due to the risk of uncontrolled blood sugar levels and its impact on overall health. Insomnia and hypertension are not typically associated with prednisone use, making them less relevant to emphasize during client education.
A nurse is caring for a client with encephalopathy secondary to liver failure. The client has been prescribed a high-calorie, low-protein diet. Which of the following meal selections is appropriate for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Chicken breast provides a low-fat protein source, and mashed potatoes and spinach provide high-calorie nutrients suitable for managing liver failure. Option A (Scrambled eggs, bacon, and pancakes) is high in protein, which is not suitable for a low-protein diet. Option B (Grilled cheese sandwich, potato chips, chocolate pudding) contains high protein and may not be appropriate for the client. Option C (Steak, French fries, corn) is high in protein and fat, which are not recommended for this client's dietary requirements.
When reinforcing teaching about self-care with a patient who has pelvic inflammatory disease and does not speak English, what action by the nurse is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When communicating with a patient who does not speak English, it is crucial to seek assistance from a facility-approved interpreter. Using family members as translators can lead to inaccuracies, breaches in confidentiality, and discomfort for the patient. Online translation tools may not provide accurate or context-specific translations, which can result in misunderstandings. Providing written instructions in English would not be effective if the patient does not understand the language.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactulose. The nurse should instruct the client that lactulose has which of the following therapeutic effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Reduces ammonia levels. Lactulose is used to reduce blood ammonia levels in clients with hepatic encephalopathy. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because lactulose does not have the therapeutic effect of increasing blood pressure, preventing esophageal bleeding, or decreasing heart rate.
A nurse is planning a staff education session regarding biological weapons of mass destruction. What should the nurse include in the session?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Smallpox, anthrax, botulism. These are known biological weapons that can be used in mass casualty situations. Rabies, cholera, and meningitis (Choice A) are not typically used as biological weapons. Ebola, hepatitis B, and tetanus (Choice C) are serious diseases but are not commonly associated with biological warfare. Tuberculosis, influenza, and measles (Choice D) are infectious diseases but are not typically used as biological weapons of mass destruction.
A nurse is caring for a client with a history of hypertension. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Blood pressure. When caring for a client with a history of hypertension, monitoring blood pressure is crucial as it allows the nurse to assess the effectiveness of management and adjust treatment if necessary. Monitoring fluid intake (Choice A) is important for conditions like heart failure, but in hypertension, the focus is primarily on blood pressure. Monitoring serum potassium levels (Choice C) is relevant in clients taking certain medications like diuretics, and weight (Choice D) is important for overall health assessment but is not the primary parameter to monitor in hypertension.
A nurse is assessing a client for signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse look for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Swelling in the limb. Swelling, particularly in one limb, is a common sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and should be assessed. This swelling is often accompanied by pain, redness, and warmth in the affected area. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreased heart rate, increased appetite, and improved mobility are not typically associated with DVT. The main focus in assessing for DVT is recognizing the signs and symptoms related to venous thrombosis.
A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Asking the client what the voices are saying is the priority action as it helps assess the content of the hallucinations. This assessment is crucial to determine if the client is at risk of harm to themselves or others. Encouraging the client to listen to music or providing a distraction may not address the underlying issues related to the hallucinations. Administering antipsychotic medication, although important, should come after a thorough assessment of the hallucinations to ensure the right medication and dosage are provided.
When educating a patient on the use of levodopa-carbidopa, which information should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for dyskinesia.' Levodopa-carbidopa can cause dyskinesia as a side effect, which is characterized by involuntary muscle movements. Patients need to be monitored for this adverse effect and instructed to report it to their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because levodopa-carbidopa is not a cure for Parkinson's disease, it should be taken at specific times for optimal effect, and it does have side effects, such as dyskinesia.
A nurse on a rehab unit is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted patient who has difficulty swallowing following a stroke. Which interprofessional team members should the nurse anticipate consulting?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Speech-language pathologist. A speech-language pathologist specializes in assessing and treating swallowing disorders, making them the most appropriate consultant for a patient with difficulty swallowing following a stroke. While other interprofessional team members such as a physical therapist (choice A), social worker (choice C), and respiratory therapist (choice D) may play important roles in the patient's care, the primary focus for swallowing difficulties would be the speech-language pathologist.
A client has been prescribed enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide regarding self-administration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to pinch the skin and inject at a 45-degree angle when administering enoxaparin. This technique helps ensure proper administration of the medication. Massaging the injection site after administering is unnecessary and could increase the risk of bleeding. Administering at a 90-degree angle is not recommended for enoxaparin injections. Rotating injection sites is important to prevent tissue damage and irritation.
A nurse is caring for a client prescribed the HMG CoA reductase inhibitor, atorvastatin. Which of the following should be monitored while this medication is prescribed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Atorvastatin, an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor, can lead to hepatotoxicity. Therefore, monitoring liver function through regular tests is essential. Baseline liver function should be assessed, followed by tests at 12 weeks after starting therapy and periodically thereafter. This monitoring helps detect early signs of liver damage, including jaundice, nausea, and dark urine. Incorrect Choices Rationale: B) Renal function test is not directly affected by atorvastatin. C) Hearing screenings and D) Visual acuity screenings are not indicated for monitoring while on atorvastatin therapy.
A nurse is caring for a client with a prescription for ferrous sulfate. What instruction should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take it with fluids other than coffee or tea. Coffee and tea can hinder iron absorption, so it's important to take the medication with other types of fluids. Choice A is incorrect because strawberries and citrus fruits are sources of vitamin C, which actually enhance iron absorption. Choice C is incorrect because ferrous sulfate is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Choice D is incorrect as doubling the dose of ferrous sulfate can lead to an overdose and severe side effects.
Before administering blood products, which action should be taken?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before administering blood products, assessing the patient's temperature is crucial. This action provides baseline data to detect any febrile reactions during or after the transfusion. Fever may indicate a transfusion reaction, so continuous monitoring of vital signs is essential throughout the procedure. Documenting the patient's response (choice B) is important but comes after assessing the temperature. Priming IV tubing with 0.45% sodium chloride (choice C) is not directly related to the initial action required before administering blood products. Administering epinephrine (choice D) is not indicated unless there is a severe allergic reaction, which is not the standard initial step before blood product administration.
A nurse is teaching a client about the use of clopidogrel. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of bleeding.' Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, not an anticoagulant. Clients taking clopidogrel should be monitored for signs of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects. Choice A is incorrect because clopidogrel is not an anticoagulant. Choice C is incorrect as clopidogrel should not be stopped abruptly but as directed by a healthcare provider. Choice D is irrelevant since foods rich in vitamin K are more of a concern with anticoagulant medications like warfarin, not antiplatelet medications like clopidogrel.
A nurse is caring for a client with Alzheimer's disease. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care to support the client's cognitive function?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Placing a daily calendar in the kitchen is essential to help clients with Alzheimer's stay oriented to time and maintain cognitive function. It supports their ability to recall the day, date, and upcoming events, promoting a sense of control over their environment. Choices B, C, and D do not directly target cognitive function support in clients with Alzheimer's disease. While replacing buttoned clothing with zippered items may aid in dressing independently, changing the flooring or introducing variation in the daily routine does not specifically address cognitive function support.
A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. A pH of 7.32 indicates metabolic acidosis, which is a hallmark of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, blood glucose levels are typically elevated, bicarbonate levels are often low, and there is a compensatory respiratory response leading to a decrease in PaCO2. Option A is incorrect because a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL is within the normal range and not indicative of DKA. Option C is incorrect because an HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L is not typically seen in DKA where bicarbonate levels are usually lower. Option D is incorrect because a PaCO2 of 48 mm Hg would not be expected in DKA; it would typically be lower due to compensatory respiratory alkalosis.
A client is prescribed metronidazole for a bacterial infection. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.' Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol, leading to symptoms like nausea, vomiting, flushing, and headache. Therefore, clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol consumption. Choice B is incorrect because metronidazole is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect as metronidazole is not known to cause increased appetite. Choice D is also incorrect as hair loss is not a common side effect of metronidazole.
A nurse is preparing to teach a client with chronic renal failure. Which dietary instruction is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to restrict protein intake for a client with chronic renal failure. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products. Excessive protein intake can lead to the accumulation of waste products, increasing the workload on the kidneys. Therefore, restricting protein intake is essential to prevent further kidney damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Increasing calcium intake is not specifically indicated for chronic renal failure. Increasing potassium intake can be dangerous in renal failure as impaired kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium. Increasing protein intake is contraindicated in chronic renal failure as it can worsen kidney function and increase the accumulation of waste products.
A healthcare provider is teaching a client about the use of prednisone. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Prednisone can cause weight gain and other side effects, so clients should be informed about these potential risks. Choice A is incorrect because prednisone should not be stopped abruptly to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because prednisone can have various side effects. Choice D is incorrect because prednisone is usually prescribed with specific dosing instructions and should not be taken irregularly or only when symptoms occur.
What is an example of a culturally sensitive response from a healthcare provider when a patient mentions feeling uncomfortable with a treatment plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Inviting the patient to share concerns is an example of a culturally sensitive response as it acknowledges the patient's feelings and provides a safe space for them to express their discomfort. This approach shows respect for the patient's cultural beliefs and values by valuing their perspective. Choice A, asking why they feel this way, can be perceived as confrontational and may not encourage open communication. Choice B, explaining that the treatment is standard, dismisses the patient's feelings and does not address their discomfort. Choice D, offering alternative treatments, may be premature without fully understanding the patient's concerns first.
A healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following findings indicates oxygen toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Decreased respiratory rate. In clients with COPD, especially when receiving oxygen therapy, a decreased respiratory rate is indicative of oxygen toxicity. This occurs because their respiratory drive is often dependent on low oxygen levels. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not necessarily indicate oxygen toxicity. Wheezing is more commonly associated with airway narrowing or constriction, while peripheral cyanosis is a sign of decreased oxygen levels in the peripheral tissues, not oxygen toxicity.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of hydrocodone. Which of the following should the healthcare professional assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When administering hydrocodone, a healthcare professional should assess the respiratory rate first because hydrocodone is an opioid that can lead to respiratory depression. Monitoring the respiratory rate helps to detect any signs of respiratory distress or depression early on. Assessing blood pressure, pain level, or heart rate is also important but not the priority when administering hydrocodone, as the risk of respiratory depression is a more critical concern.
A client is prescribed tramadol for pain management. Which of the following should the nurse educate the client about?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Tramadol can cause sedation, so the nurse should educate the client about this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because tramadol is actually an opioid analgesic. Choice C is incorrect as tramadol does carry a risk for dependence, especially with prolonged use. Choice D is not entirely accurate as tramadol is usually prescribed on a scheduled basis rather than as needed.
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.
A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation. The client's contractions are occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. The client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation, as evidenced by contractions occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. Discontinuing the oxytocin is crucial to prevent fetal distress and uterine rupture. Increasing the IV fluid rate would not address the uterine hyperstimulation caused by oxytocin. Applying an internal fetal monitor is not the priority at this moment; first, the oxytocin infusion needs to be stopped to manage the uterine hyperstimulation effectively.
A nurse is discussing immunity with a client who has received an immunization. The nurse should identify that an immunization functions as part of which type of immunity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Acquired immunity. Acquired immunity occurs when an individual is given a vaccine or immunization to develop antibodies. This type of immunity is specific and develops after exposure to an antigen. Innate immunity (choice A) is the body's natural defense system present at birth. Passive immunity (choice B) is temporary immunity passed from one individual to another. Natural immunity (choice D) refers to immunity that is not gained through medical intervention or deliberate exposure.
A client has been prescribed vasopressin for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. What is the expected pharmacological action of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: To increase reabsorption of water in the renal tubules. Vasopressin mimics the action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by increasing the reabsorption of water in the renal tubules. This leads to decreased urine output, helping to manage symptoms of diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by excessive thirst and urination. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Vasopressin does not stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin, slow the absorption of glucose in the intestine, or directly increase blood pressure.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation. The client's contractions are occurring every 45 seconds and lasting 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation with contractions every 45 seconds lasting 90 seconds. This frequency and duration of contractions can lead to fetal distress. The appropriate nursing action is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion immediately to prevent complications. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, while decreasing it may not be sufficient to address the issue effectively.
During a skin assessment on a client with risk factors for skin cancer, a nurse should understand that a suspicious lesion is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Asymmetric with variegated coloring. An asymmetric lesion with variegated coloring, meaning different shades of color within the same lesion, is characteristic of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. This type of lesion should raise suspicions and prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D do not typically represent characteristics of suspicious skin lesions associated with skin cancer. Lesions that are scaly and red (Choice A) may indicate other skin conditions like eczema or psoriasis. Firm and rubbery lesions (Choice C) are more suggestive of benign skin growths like dermatofibromas. Lesions that are brown with a wart-like texture (Choice D) are often indicative of seborrheic keratosis, a benign growth, rather than a suspicious lesion related to skin cancer.
While caring for a client receiving oxytocin for labor augmentation, the nurse notes contractions occurring every 45 seconds and lasting 90 seconds. What should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. The client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and complications. By stopping the oxytocin, the nurse can help regulate contractions and prevent harm to the fetus. Increasing the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the issue by further intensifying contractions. Applying an internal fetal monitor may be necessary for closer monitoring but is not the immediate action required. Administering an analgesic is not appropriate in this scenario as the primary concern is addressing the uterine hyperstimulation caused by oxytocin.
A community nurse is instructing a group of high school students about the transmission of hepatitis A. Which mode of transmission should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Fecal-oral. Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the fecal-oral route, often from consuming contaminated food or water. Choice A, sexual contact, is not a typical mode of transmission for hepatitis A. Choice B, airborne droplets, is more characteristic of diseases like influenza or tuberculosis. Choice D, bloodborne transmission, is more relevant to hepatitis B and C, not hepatitis A.
A nurse is admitting a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Which of the following types of isolation precautions should the nurse initiate for the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Airborne. Tuberculosis is spread through small droplets that remain airborne for longer periods, hence requiring airborne precautions. Choice A - Contact precautions are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice B - Droplet precautions are for diseases transmitted by large respiratory droplets that can travel short distances. Choice C - Protective isolation is not necessary for tuberculosis, as it is not spread through contact with the client.
A nurse is preparing to administer prochlorperazine 2.5 mg IV. Available is prochlorperazine injection 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To determine the volume of prochlorperazine to administer, divide the prescribed dose (2.5 mg) by the concentration of the medication (5 mg/mL). This calculation results in 0.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.5 mL to deliver the correct dose. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect as it miscalculates the dosage. Choices C (1.0 mL) and D (1.5 mL) are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated volume needed for the dose.
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has GERD. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect to find?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Atypical chest pain. GERD often presents with atypical chest pain due to acid reflux, which can mimic the symptoms of cardiac conditions but is related to the esophagus. Shortness of breath (choice A) is not a typical assessment finding in GERD. Rebound tenderness (choice B) is associated with peritoneal inflammation, not GERD. Vomiting blood (choice D) is a severe symptom that may indicate esophageal damage but is not a common assessment finding in GERD.
A nurse is preparing to feed a newly admitted client with dysphagia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Sitting at or below the client's eye level is important when feeding a client with dysphagia. This position allows the nurse to closely observe the client for any signs of difficulty with swallowing, which can help prevent aspiration. Instructing the client to lift their chin when swallowing (choice A) is not recommended for clients with dysphagia as it can increase the risk of aspiration. Discouraging the client from coughing during feedings (choice B) is also not correct, as coughing may be a protective mechanism to prevent aspiration. Talking with the client during feedings (choice D) may distract the client and interfere with their ability to focus on swallowing safely.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin IV for augmentation of labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 45 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 170-180/minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the contractions are too frequent (tachysystole), and the fetal heart rate is elevated. Tachysystole can lead to decreased oxygen perfusion to the fetus, causing fetal distress. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion to prevent harm to both the mother and fetus. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the current situation, potentially leading to further complications. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion may not be sufficient to address the tachysystole and elevated fetal heart rate, making it an inappropriate choice.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has Parkinson's disease and is at risk for aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with Parkinson's disease at risk for aspiration is to instruct the client to tilt their head forward when swallowing. This action helps protect the airway and reduces the risk of aspiration in clients with impaired swallowing, which is common in Parkinson's disease. Encouraging the client to eat thin liquids (Choice A) can increase the risk of aspiration as they are harder to control during swallowing. Giving the client large pieces of food (Choice C) can also increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Having the client lie down after meals (Choice D) can further increase the risk of aspiration due to the potential for reflux. Therefore, the best action to prevent aspiration in this situation is to instruct the client to tilt their head forward when swallowing.
A nurse is caring for a client who has congestive heart failure and is taking digoxin. The client reports nausea and refuses to eat breakfast. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to check the client's apical pulse first. Nausea can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, and assessing the client's heart rate is crucial in this situation. Administering an antiemetic or encouraging the client to eat should come after ensuring the client's safety. While informing the provider is important, the immediate concern is to assess for potential digoxin toxicity by checking the client's apical pulse.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in preterm labor and is receiving magnesium sulfate via IV infusion. Which of the following findings indicates magnesium toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. A urine output of 20 mL/hour is a sign of magnesium toxicity because decreased urine output can lead to accumulation of magnesium. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of magnesium toxicity. Elevated blood glucose, high systolic blood pressure, and normal BUN levels do not specifically point towards magnesium toxicity.
A client with chronic renal failure needs dietary instructions. Which of the following should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the client to restrict protein intake. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products, so limiting protein helps reduce the buildup of waste in the body. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not typically necessary unless there is a specific deficiency. Providing a diet high in potassium (Choice B) is contraindicated as potassium levels need to be monitored and controlled in renal failure. Increasing fluid intake (Choice D) may be necessary depending on the individual's condition, but restricting protein intake is a more critical dietary instruction for clients with chronic renal failure.
A nurse is assessing a client for signs of allergic reaction. Which of the following should the nurse look for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct! When assessing a client for signs of an allergic reaction, a nurse should look for a rash. A rash is a common manifestation of an allergic response, such as contact dermatitis or hives. It is important to recognize and assess rashes promptly as they can indicate an allergic reaction.\nOption A, fever, is not typically a primary sign of an allergic reaction but may occur in severe cases. Option C, fatigue, is a general symptom and not specific to allergic reactions. Option D, increased appetite, is not a common sign of an allergic reaction and is more likely related to other conditions or factors.
A nurse is planning care for a newly admitted adolescent client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following instructions is appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Initiate droplet precautions.' Bacterial meningitis requires droplet precautions to prevent the spread of infection, as the bacteria can be transmitted through respiratory secretions. Choice B is incorrect because assisting the client to a supine position is not specific to the care of a client with bacterial meningitis and may not be appropriate for all clients. Choice C is incorrect because while performing Glasgow Coma Scale assessments is important in managing clients with neurological conditions, it is not directly related to preventing the spread of bacterial meningitis. Choice D is incorrect because recommending prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family is not a standard precautionary measure for preventing the spread of bacterial meningitis.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving a dopamine infusion via a peripheral IV. Which of the following actions should the nurse take if the IV site appears infiltrated?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: If infiltration is suspected, the nurse should immediately stop the dopamine infusion to prevent further damage to the surrounding tissue. Choice A is the correct answer because continuing the infusion can lead to tissue damage and compromise the client's care. Slowing the infusion (Choice B) is not sufficient to prevent harm and may still cause damage. Applying a warm compress (Choice C) or a cold compress (Choice D) is not the recommended action for infiltration; stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent complications.
A patient is receiving discharge teaching for esophageal cancer and starting radiation therapy. What instruction should the healthcare provider include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a patient starting radiation therapy for esophageal cancer is to wear clothing over the area of radiation treatment. This helps to prevent irritation and protect the skin. Removing dye markings after each treatment (choice A) is unnecessary and not typically part of the patient's self-care. Applying a warm compress (choice B) can exacerbate skin irritation caused by radiation. Using a washcloth to bathe the treatment area (choice D) can potentially irritate the skin further, making it important to avoid.
A nurse is teaching a group of clients about measures to prevent the development of skin cancer. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. An SPF of at least 15 is recommended to effectively protect against harmful UV rays. A sunscreen with an SPF of 10 is insufficient and does not provide adequate protection against skin cancer. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate good understanding of sun protection measures, such as avoiding peak sun hours, wearing protective clothing like a wide-brimmed hat, and reapplying sunscreen every 2 hours, which are all effective strategies to prevent skin cancer.
A client has a stool culture positive for C. difficile. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a client with a C. difficile infection, it is essential to isolate them in a private room to prevent the spread of spores through contact with surfaces. Placing the client in a negative pressure room (Choice A) is not necessary for C. difficile. Using alcohol-based hand rub (Choice B) and wearing a face shield (Choice C) are important infection control measures but are not specific to the isolation requirements for C. difficile.
A client with a history of renal failure is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with renal failure are at risk for electrolyte imbalances and hypertension. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial because renal failure can lead to imbalances in sodium, potassium, and other electrolytes. Blood pressure monitoring is essential as hypertension is a common complication of renal failure. Therefore, both electrolyte levels and blood pressure should be closely monitored to detect and manage any abnormalities. Fluid intake, while important, is not specific to renal failure monitoring and is not the priority in this case.
A nurse is assessing a client with pancreatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse look for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Abdominal pain. Abdominal pain, often severe, is a hallmark sign of pancreatitis. Other common symptoms include nausea, vomiting, and tenderness in the abdomen. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight gain, and elevated blood pressure are not typically associated with pancreatitis. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on assessing for abdominal pain in a client with suspected pancreatitis.
A nurse is planning care for a newly admitted adolescent with bacterial meningitis. What intervention should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a newly admitted adolescent with bacterial meningitis is to initiate droplet precautions. Bacterial meningitis is highly contagious, and droplet precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of infection. Assisting the client to a supine position (Choice B) is not directly related to managing bacterial meningitis. Performing a Glasgow Coma Scale every 24 hours (Choice C) may be important to assess the client's neurological status but is not the priority intervention in preventing the spread of infection. Recommending prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family (Choice D) is not a standard practice in the care of a patient with bacterial meningitis.
A nurse is planning care for an adolescent client with chronic renal failure. Which action should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In chronic renal failure, it is essential to restrict protein intake to the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) to reduce the accumulation of waste products that the kidneys can no longer effectively eliminate. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in chronic renal failure, high calcium, high potassium, and increased fluid intake can further strain the kidneys and worsen the condition.
A nurse is caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, which puts the client at high risk of infection and requires immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases the susceptibility to infections due to a significant decrease in neutrophils, which are essential for fighting off bacteria and other pathogens. Reporting this critical lab value promptly to the provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions are initiated to prevent life-threatening infections. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent reporting to the provider.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client after a myocardial infarction. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for chest pain and report any recurrence.' After a myocardial infarction, it is crucial for clients to be vigilant about any signs of chest pain as it could indicate a recurrent event. Prompt reporting of chest pain can lead to timely intervention, preventing further complications. Choice A is incorrect because resuming normal activities immediately after a heart attack can be dangerous and is not recommended. Choice C is also incorrect as avoiding all physical activity for 6 months is excessive and can lead to deconditioning. Choice D is incorrect as medications prescribed after a myocardial infarction are usually meant to be taken regularly as prescribed, not just as needed.
A nurse is planning to delegate to an AP the task of fasting blood glucose testing for a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before delegating any task, the nurse must determine whether the AP is qualified to perform it. In this scenario, verifying the AP's competency to conduct fasting blood glucose testing is crucial for patient safety and compliance with facility protocols. The other choices are incorrect because they do not address the essential step of assessing the AP's ability to perform the delegated task. While helping the AP or assigning tasks related to diabetic medication or medical records are important, the primary concern should be confirming the AP's competence for the specific delegated duty of blood glucose testing.
A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral tube feeding through an NG tube at 250 mL over 4 hr. The nurse should set the pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Calculation: 250 mL / 4 hours = 62.5 mL/hr, which should be rounded up to 63 mL/hr. This ensures the correct rate is set for continuous feeding. Choice A (60 mL/hr) is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice B (62 mL/hr) is close but does not round up to the nearest whole number as required. Choice D (65 mL/hr) is higher than the correct calculation and would deliver the feeding solution at a faster rate than prescribed.
A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral tube feeding through an NG tube at 250 mL over 4 hr. The nurse should set the pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the rate for the enteral tube feeding, divide the total volume by the total time: 250 mL / 4 hr = 62.5 ≈ 63 mL/hr. Therefore, the nurse should set the pump to deliver 63 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation result. B is too low, C is too high, and D is also too high based on the correct calculation.
A client has a prescription for sertraline to treat depression. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the medication treatment plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Difficulty sleeping is a common side effect of sertraline, an SSRI used to treat depression. Clients should be educated to expect this, especially during the early stages of treatment. Choice A is incorrect because sertraline may take a few weeks to show its full effect. Choice B is incorrect as increased urination is not a common side effect of sertraline. Choice D is unrelated to the side effects or management of sertraline.
A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should take when administering enoxaparin is to inject the medication in the abdomen subcutaneously. This route ensures proper absorption of the medication. Aspiration is not necessary before injecting enoxaparin as it is a subcutaneous injection, not an intramuscular injection. Massaging the site after injecting should be avoided to prevent bruising. Enoxaparin injections are typically given at a 45 to 90-degree angle, not necessarily at a strict 90-degree angle.
A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action the nurse should take when preparing to administer a blood transfusion is to verify the blood type and crossmatch. This step is crucial to ensure compatibility and prevent transfusion reactions. Obtaining the client's consent is important but should follow the verification process. Taking baseline vital signs is necessary before starting the transfusion, but confirming compatibility takes precedence. Priming the IV with normal saline is a step done before starting the transfusion, after ensuring blood compatibility.
A charge nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse on how to clean surfaces contaminated with blood. Which of the following agents should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Chlorine bleach is the recommended agent for cleaning blood spills due to its effectiveness in killing bloodborne pathogens like HIV and hepatitis B. Hydrogen peroxide, Chlorhexidine, and Isopropyl alcohol are not as effective as chlorine bleach in disinfecting surfaces contaminated with blood and eliminating bloodborne pathogens, making them incorrect choices.
A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number).
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the IV infusion rate in gtt/min: 1000 mL / 480 min × 10 gtt/mL = 20.83 ≈ 21 gtt/min. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B (20 gtt/min) is incorrect because the calculation results in 20.83 gtt/min, rounded to 21. Choices C (25 gtt/min) and D (18 gtt/min) are incorrect as they are not the closest whole number approximation to the calculated value.
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