ati pn comprehensive predictor 2024 ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024 - Nursing Elites
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim works by stimulating the production of white blood cells. Therefore, monitoring the white blood cell (WBC) count is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B, serum potassium, is not directly affected by filgrastim therapy. Choice C, hemoglobin level, is important but not the primary indicator of filgrastim's effectiveness. Choice D, serum creatinine, is unrelated to the action of filgrastim and would not reflect its effectiveness.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An HbA1c level less than 7% indicates good long-term glucose control for clients with diabetes. This goal reflects optimal glycemic control and reduces the risk of long-term complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent appropriate goals for managing type 1 diabetes in an adolescent. An HbA1c level greater than 8% (choice A) signifies poor glucose control, while a blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime (choice B) and a blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast (choice C) are not within the target ranges for safe and effective diabetes management.

3. What is the best nursing intervention for a patient with hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer potassium-wasting diuretics. Hyperkalemia, which is high potassium levels, is managed by promoting the excretion of potassium from the body. Potassium-wasting diuretics help the kidneys eliminate excess potassium. Encouraging a low-potassium diet (choice B) is important for long-term management but not the immediate intervention for hyperkalemia. Administering potassium supplements (choice C) would worsen the condition by further increasing potassium levels. Administering IV fluids (choice D) may help with hydration but does not directly address the high potassium levels characteristic of hyperkalemia.

4. A nurse is planning discharge teaching about cord care for the parents of a newborn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse plan to include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the cord stump dry until it falls off. This is important to promote natural healing and prevent infection. Choice A is incorrect because cleaning the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily can actually delay healing and increase the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect as the cord stump typically falls off within 1 to 3 weeks, not in 5 days. Choice C is incorrect because a cord stump turning black is a normal part of the healing process and does not necessarily indicate a problem requiring immediate provider contact.

5. What are the complications of untreated hypertension?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Heart disease and stroke.' Untreated hypertension can lead to various complications, including heart disease and stroke. These are common outcomes of long-term high blood pressure. Choice B, 'Kidney failure and vision loss,' is incorrect as kidney failure and vision loss are more commonly associated with diabetic complications rather than untreated hypertension. Choice C, 'Pulmonary embolism and arrhythmias,' while serious, are not among the primary complications of untreated hypertension. Choice D, 'Blood clots and gastrointestinal bleeding,' are not typical complications of untreated hypertension but can occur due to other conditions such as blood clotting disorders or gastrointestinal diseases.

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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