Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assisting with an in-service about hepatitis A for a group of staff nurses. The nurse should include that hepatitis A is transmitted through which of the following methods?

• A. Airborne droplets
• B. Sexual contact
• C. Contact with contaminated surfaces
• D. Consumption of contaminated food

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Consumption of contaminated food. Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the ingestion of contaminated food or water. Airborne droplets and sexual contact are not common modes of transmission for hepatitis A. While contact with contaminated surfaces can play a role in the spread of some infections, hepatitis A is not typically transmitted through this route.

2. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with a suspected urinary tract infection (UTI)?

• A. Antibiotic Therapy
• B. Hydration
• C. Pain Management
• D. Patient Education

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing and managing a patient with a suspected UTI, the priority is to start antibiotic therapy to treat the infection. Antibiotics are crucial in eliminating the bacteria causing the UTI. While hydration is important to help flush out the bacteria, pain management can help alleviate discomfort but is not the primary treatment. Patient education is vital for prevention and management but is not the immediate intervention required for a suspected UTI.

3. A client with newly diagnosed type I diabetes mellitus is being seen by the home health nurse. The physician orders include: 1,200-calorie ADA diet, 15 units of NPH insulin before breakfast, and check blood sugar qid. When the nurse visits the client at 5 PM, the nurse observes the man performing a blood sugar analysis. The result is 50 mg/dL. The nurse would expect the client to be

• A. Confused with cold, clammy skin and a pulse of 110
• B. Lethargic with hot, dry skin and rapid, deep respirations
• C. Alert and cooperative with a BP of 130/80 and respirations of 12
• D. Short of breath, with distended neck veins and a bounding pulse of 96

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Low blood sugar levels (50 mg/dL) typically cause confusion, cold clammy skin, and an increased pulse (tachycardia). Option A correctly describes the expected symptoms of hypoglycemia, which include confusion due to the brain's inadequate glucose supply, cold and clammy skin due to sympathetic nervous system activation, and an increased pulse (110 bpm) as the body reacts to low blood sugar levels. Options B, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Lethargy, hot dry skin, rapid deep respirations, normal vital signs, shortness of breath, distended neck veins, and bounding pulse are more indicative of other conditions or normal physiological responses, not hypoglycemia.

4. What are the signs of opioid withdrawal, and how should it be managed?

• A. Sweating, nausea; administer methadone
• B. Muscle cramps, vomiting; administer naloxone
• C. Tremors, sweating; administer buprenorphine
• D. Fever, agitation; provide sedatives

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs of opioid withdrawal typically include sweating and nausea. The correct management approach involves administering methadone to alleviate the symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not for managing withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as buprenorphine is typically used to treat opioid addiction, not just withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as sedatives are not the primary treatment for opioid withdrawal.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Zolpidem
• C. Morphine
• D. Lorazepam

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.

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