LPN LPN
LPN Pharmacology
1. Which statement indicates that a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) understands disease management?
- A. I will walk for one-half hour daily.
- B. As long as I exercise, I can eat anything I wish.
- C. My weight plays no role in this disease.
- D. My father's high cholesterol is irrelevant.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because regular physical activity, such as walking for half an hour daily, is beneficial for managing coronary artery disease (CAD) and promoting heart health. Walking helps improve circulation, reduce cholesterol levels, and maintain a healthy weight, all of which are crucial for managing CAD. Choice B is incorrect because diet also plays a significant role in CAD management, not just exercise. Choice C is incorrect because weight management is essential in controlling CAD risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because family history of high cholesterol can increase the risk of CAD, making it relevant for disease management.
2. The client with myocardial infarction should reduce intake of saturated fat and cholesterol. Which food items from the dietary menu would assist the nurse in helping the client comply with diet therapy?
- A. Cheeseburger, pan-fried potatoes, whole kernel corn, sherbet
- B. Pork chop, baked potato, cauliflower in cheese sauce, ice cream
- C. Baked haddock, steamed broccoli, herbed rice, sliced strawberries
- D. Spaghetti and sweet sausage in tomato sauce, vanilla pudding (with 4% milk)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Option C, which includes baked haddock, steamed broccoli, herbed rice, and sliced strawberries, is the most appropriate choice for a client with myocardial infarction looking to reduce saturated fat and cholesterol intake. This meal is low in saturated fats and cholesterol, making it a heart-healthy option that aligns with the dietary recommendations for such clients. Choices A, B, and D contain foods high in saturated fats and cholesterol, which are not suitable for a client with myocardial infarction trying to adhere to a diet therapy aimed at reducing these components.
3. The client is receiving intravenous heparin for the treatment of a pulmonary embolism. Which medication should the nurse ensure is readily available?
- A. Protamine sulfate
- B. Vitamin K
- C. Calcium gluconate
- D. Magnesium sulfate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, used to reverse its anticoagulant effects. It should be readily available in case of bleeding complications, as it can rapidly neutralize the effects of heparin and prevent excessive bleeding. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin (Choice B). Calcium gluconate is used to treat calcium deficiencies, not indicated for heparin therapy (Choice C). Magnesium sulfate is used for conditions like preeclampsia and eclampsia, not for reversing heparin effects (Choice D).
4. Before administering digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client diagnosed with heart failure, the nurse should perform which assessment?
- A. Check the blood pressure.
- B. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
- C. Assess the apical pulse.
- D. Review the latest electrolyte levels.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing the apical pulse is crucial before administering digoxin because the medication can lead to bradycardia. Monitoring the apical pulse helps determine the heart rate, and digoxin is typically withheld if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute. This assessment is essential to prevent potential adverse effects associated with digoxin administration. Checking the blood pressure (Choice A) is important but not specific to digoxin administration. Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) (Choice B) may provide valuable information but is not the primary assessment needed before administering digoxin. Reviewing the latest electrolyte levels (Choice D) is important for assessing the overall condition but is not the immediate assessment required before administering digoxin.
5. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?
- A. Tall, peaked T waves
- B. ST segment depressions
- C. Shortened P-R intervals
- D. Shortening of the QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.
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