LPN LPN
LPN Pharmacology
1. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?
- A. Tall, peaked T waves
- B. ST segment depressions
- C. Shortened P-R intervals
- D. Shortening of the QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.
2. A client with known coronary artery disease (CAD) begins to experience chest pain while getting out of bed. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Obtain a prescription for pain medication.
- B. Have the client stop and lie back down in bed.
- C. Report the complaint to the healthcare provider.
- D. Instruct the client to continue getting out of bed and into a chair.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with CAD experiences chest pain, it indicates myocardial ischemia. The nurse should have the client stop the activity and lie back down in bed to reduce the heart's oxygen demand, decrease myocardial workload, and prevent further ischemia. This action helps in improving blood flow to the heart and can potentially alleviate the chest pain. Option A is incorrect as pain medication should not be the initial action for chest pain in CAD. Option C is incorrect because the nurse should first intervene directly to address the chest pain. Option D is incorrect as continuing the activity can worsen the myocardial ischemia and chest pain.
3. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction has a new activity prescription allowing the client to have bathroom privileges. As the client stands and begins to walk, the client begins to complain of chest pain. The nurse should take which action?
- A. Assist the client to get back into bed.
- B. Report the chest pain episode to the healthcare provider.
- C. Tell the client to stand still and take the client's blood pressure.
- D. Give a nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablet and assist the client to the bathroom.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with myocardial infarction experiencing chest pain during activity, the priority action is to stop the activity immediately to reduce the heart's workload and oxygen demand. Assisting the client back to bed helps in reducing stress on the heart and can prevent worsening of the condition. Reporting the chest pain episode to the healthcare provider is important but should not delay taking immediate action to alleviate symptoms. Taking the client's blood pressure and administering nitroglycerin are secondary actions after ensuring the client's safety and comfort. Therefore, the correct action is to assist the client back into bed.
4. A client with myocardial infarction (MI) has been transferred from the coronary care unit (CCU) to the general medical unit with cardiac monitoring via telemetry. The nurse assisting in caring for the client expects to note which type of activity prescribed?
- A. Strict bed rest for 24 hours
- B. Bathroom privileges and self-care activities
- C. Unrestricted activities because the client is monitored
- D. Unsupervised hallway ambulation with distances less than 200 feet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After being transferred from the CCU to the general medical unit with cardiac monitoring, the client with MI is typically prescribed bathroom privileges and self-care activities. This approach allows for gradual recovery and mobility while still being closely monitored, promoting the client's overall well-being and independence. Choice A, strict bed rest for 24 hours, is too restrictive and not recommended for MI patients as it can lead to complications like deep vein thrombosis. Choice C, unrestricted activities, is also not appropriate as MI patients usually require monitoring and gradual re-introduction to activities. Choice D, unsupervised hallway ambulation with distances less than 200 feet, may be too strenuous for a client who just got transferred from the CCU and needs a more gradual approach to activity.
5. The client is scheduled to undergo a treadmill stress test. Which instruction should the client be reinforced with?
- A. Eat a light meal before the test.
- B. Wear comfortable shoes and clothing.
- C. Avoid all physical activity the morning of the test.
- D. Take prescribed medications right before the test.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Wear comfortable shoes and clothing.' Wearing comfortable shoes and clothing is crucial for the client undergoing a treadmill stress test to ensure they can complete the test without discomfort. The right attire will help the client move freely and reduce the risk of any hindrance during the test, which requires physical activity. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A light meal before the test may be recommended, but it's not as crucial as wearing suitable attire. Avoiding physical activity the morning of the test is not necessary as the test requires physical activity. Taking prescribed medications right before the test instructions should be followed as per the healthcare provider's advice and not as a general rule for all clients undergoing the test.
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