Free ATI Nutrition practice for ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2019 Answers (ATI LPN). Answer 49 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and prog
What is one useful outcome of keeping a record of everything you eat and drink for a day?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Increased awareness of personal food patterns. Keeping a food record is beneficial as it helps individuals become more mindful of their eating habits and food choices. This awareness can lead to identifying patterns, triggers, and areas for improvement in one's diet. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the primary benefit of keeping a food record is not about precise estimates of portion sizes, determining energy intake, or estimating supplement needs, but rather about developing a deeper understanding of personal food patterns.
Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body in sufficient amounts are known as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, 'dispensable.' Dispensable amino acids are those that the body can synthesize in sufficient amounts, so they are not required to be obtained from the diet. Indispensable amino acids, on the other hand, are essential and must be obtained from the diet because the body cannot produce them in sufficient quantities. Choices C and D, 'simple' and 'complex,' are incorrect as they do not accurately describe amino acids in terms of synthesis by the body.
Fructose is the sugar found in:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Fructose is a sugar naturally found in honey and fruit. While bread contains carbohydrates, it does not primarily consist of fructose. Gelatin desserts are more likely to contain added sugars like sucrose rather than fructose. Sugar-coated cereals typically contain sucrose or other added sugars, not just fructose. Therefore, the correct answer is honey and fruit as they naturally contain fructose.
Cholecystokinin (CCK) is produced in the:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cholecystokinin (CCK) is produced in the duodenum, not the stomach, pancreas, or liver. It is released in response to the presence of food in the duodenum, where it plays a crucial role in regulating digestive processes by stimulating the release of bile from the gallbladder and enzymes from the pancreas. Therefore, the correct answer is the duodenum (Choice A). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because CCK is not produced in the stomach, pancreas, or liver.
With respect to its effect on colon microflora, fiber is considered a:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: prebiotic. Fiber acts as a prebiotic by providing a food source for beneficial bacteria in the colon, promoting their growth and activity. This helps maintain a healthy balance of microflora in the gut. Choice B, probiotic, is incorrect as fiber itself does not contain live beneficial bacteria but rather supports their growth. Choice C, functional food, is too broad and doesn't specifically address fiber's role in promoting beneficial bacteria. Choice D, protective agent, is vague and does not directly relate to fiber's specific function in colon microflora.
What are the compounds in soy foods with estrogen-like activity examples of?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Phytochemicals. Phytochemicals in soy foods can mimic estrogen and may have health benefits. Indispensable amino acids are essential amino acids that the body cannot produce on its own. Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers in the nervous system. Metabolic by-products are substances produced during metabolism.
A vegetarian diet that includes dairy foods and eggs is known as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct term for a vegetarian diet that includes both dairy foods and eggs is 'ovolactovegetarian.' This term specifically indicates the inclusion of eggs ('ovo') and dairy ('lacto') in the diet. Choice A, 'lactovegetarian,' is incorrect because it only includes dairy products without eggs. Choice B, 'vegan,' is incorrect as it excludes all animal products, including dairy and eggs. Choice C, 'semi-vegetarian,' is incorrect as it is a term used for individuals who occasionally eat meat, poultry, or fish but primarily follow a plant-based diet.
A person with lactose intolerance should be most careful to limit their intake of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Individuals with lactose intolerance lack the enzyme lactase needed to break down lactose, the sugar in dairy products. Milk contains a high amount of lactose, making it crucial for those with lactose intolerance to limit their intake. Yogurt and cheese, on the other hand, have lower lactose content due to the fermentation process which reduces lactose levels, making them better tolerated by many with lactose intolerance. Corn syrup, although high in sugar, does not contain lactose and is unrelated to lactose intolerance. Therefore, the correct answer is 'milk' as it is a significant source of lactose, which can trigger symptoms in individuals with lactose intolerance.
Which of the following is an example of a disaccharide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Maltose. A disaccharide is formed when two monosaccharides are joined together. Glucose, fructose, and galactose are all monosaccharides, not disaccharides. Therefore, they are not examples of disaccharides.
A physical science that contributes to understanding how nutrition relates to health and well-being is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Biochemistry is the correct answer because it focuses on understanding the chemical processes related to nutrition and how nutrients affect the body. Anatomy (choice A) primarily deals with the structure of organisms, not the chemical processes of nutrition. Physics (choice C) deals with energy and matter, not specifically related to nutrition. Pharmacology (choice D) focuses on drugs and their interactions with the body, not directly related to nutrition and its effects on health.
Consuming 30 g of which nutrient would provide the highest number of kcalories?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, 'Fat.' Fat provides 9 kcalories per gram, which is more than carbohydrates and proteins that provide 4 kcalories per gram each. Therefore, consuming 30 g of fat would yield a higher number of kcalories compared to the same amount of carbohydrates or proteins. Micronutrients do not significantly contribute to kcalories, making them an incorrect choice in this scenario.
Which of the following is an example of a complete protein?
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Explanation:
The correct answer is A, Milk. Milk is considered a complete protein as it contains all the essential amino acids required by the body. Soy (choice B) is also a complete protein, containing all essential amino acids. Sesame seeds (choice C) and sweet potato (choice D) are not complete proteins as they lack one or more essential amino acids needed by the body.
Where is Vitamin B12 found?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Vitamin B12 is primarily found in animal-derived foods like meats. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as whole grains, nuts, and legumes do not naturally contain significant amounts of Vitamin B12. Therefore, the correct answer is 'C: Meats.'
The interrelated network of nerves within the gastrointestinal wall that regulates its muscular action is known as the:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C - intramural nerve plexus. This network of nerves regulates the muscular movements within the gastrointestinal wall. The gastric nerve plexus (choice A) specifically relates to the stomach, not the entire gastrointestinal tract. The biliary nerve plexus (choice B) is associated with the bile ducts and gallbladder, not the regulation of muscular action. The intestinal nerve plexus (choice D) is a general term that doesn't specifically refer to the network of nerves within the gastrointestinal wall.
What are the major sources of energy for the body?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Carbohydrates and fats. Carbohydrates are the body's primary and most efficient source of energy, providing fuel for daily activities. Fats are also a significant energy source, especially during times of prolonged or intense exercise. Proteins are primarily used for building and repairing tissues, not as a major energy source. Vitamins and minerals are essential for various bodily functions but do not serve as direct sources of energy.
Signs of malnutrition can appear when:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'nutrient reserves are depleted.' Signs of malnutrition manifest when the body's reserves of essential nutrients are exhausted and can no longer sustain health. Choice B is incorrect because excessive nutrient intake exceeding daily needs does not lead to malnutrition but may cause other health issues. Choice C is incorrect as restricting energy intake may lead to weight loss but not necessarily malnutrition. Choice D is also incorrect as increasing caloric expenditure does not directly cause malnutrition.
Which of the following is a source of complete protein?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Eggs are considered a source of complete protein because they contain all the essential amino acids required by the body. The other options, cereal grains, beans, and nuts, do not provide all the essential amino acids in the necessary proportions to be classified as complete proteins.
Which of the following provides the best source of nutrients?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A variety of foods is the best source of nutrients because it ensures a balanced intake of all essential nutrients required by the body. Option A, specific food combinations, may not provide all necessary nutrients as relying on only a few types of food may lead to deficiencies. Option C, individual foods, also may not provide a complete range of nutrients necessary for overall health. Option D, a variety of food supplements, is not the best source of nutrients as whole foods are generally more beneficial due to their natural nutrient composition and bioavailability.
What is the process of converting glycogen to glucose called?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Glycogenolysis. Glycogenolysis is the process of breaking down glycogen into glucose. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Glucogenesis (choice A) is not a term used in biochemistry. Glyconeogenesis (choice C) refers to the synthesis of new glucose molecules from non-carbohydrate sources, not the breakdown of glycogen. Gluconeogenesis (choice D) is the process of producing glucose from non-carbohydrate sources, not the breakdown of glycogen.
What is the process by which proteins are synthesized from the available amino acids?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Protein synthesis. This process involves the formation of proteins from amino acids to support various body functions. Gluconeogenesis (choice A) is the synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources, not protein synthesis. Deamination (choice B) is the removal of an amino group from an amino acid, not the synthesis of proteins. Transamination (choice D) is the transfer of an amino group from one molecule to another, not the direct synthesis of proteins.
Which compound is necessary for emulsification of fat in the body?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Bile salts are essential for emulsifying fats in the body. They break down fats into smaller droplets, increasing the surface area for enzymes to work on during digestion. Cholecystokinin is a hormone that stimulates the release of bile and pancreatic enzymes, but it is not directly involved in emulsification. Chyme is the semi-fluid mass of partly digested food that moves from the stomach to the small intestine and does not play a role in emulsifying fats. Trypsin is an enzyme produced by the pancreas that acts on proteins, not fats.
The primary responsibility for nutrition care of people in the community belongs to the:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Public health nutritionists work within communities to ensure that populations have access to nutritional resources. They focus on promoting good nutrition, developing programs, and educating the public about healthy eating habits. While community physicians, public health nurses, and registered dietitians may also play roles in promoting nutrition in the community, the primary responsibility for nutrition care typically falls under the purview of public health nutritionists.
A food choice equivalent to one serving from the Grains group of MyPlate is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
One slice of bread is a standard serving from the Grains group in MyPlate. This choice aligns with the recommended portion size for grains. Choices B, C, and D are excessive portions that do not represent a single serving according to MyPlate guidelines. 2 cups of rice, 3 cups of spaghetti, and 4 oz of ready-to-eat cereal exceed the standard serving size for grains and would provide more than one serving from this food group.
Which of the following plasma proteins helps maintain fluid balance?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Albumin is the correct answer. It is a plasma protein that helps maintain osmotic pressure, thereby playing a vital role in regulating fluid balance in the body. Fibrinogen is involved in blood clotting, not fluid balance. Hemoglobin is responsible for oxygen transport in red blood cells, not fluid balance. Collagen is a structural protein found in connective tissues, not directly involved in fluid balance.
Protein is constantly being exchanged between which two components?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'tissue and plasma.' Protein turnover involves the continuous exchange of proteins between body tissues and the bloodstream (plasma) as part of normal metabolic processes. This process ensures a balance in protein levels throughout the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the primary sites for protein turnover in the body.
In addition to active transport, which process is involved in absorbing food in the small intestine?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is pinocytosis. Pinocytosis is a process where cells in the small intestine absorb nutrients by engulfing them. This process is different from phagocytosis, which involves engulfing large particles, and excretion, which is the removal of waste products. Electrochemical diffusion is not directly involved in the absorption of food in the small intestine.
Which body organ is responsible for the metabolic processing of glucose?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the liver. The liver plays a central role in glucose homeostasis by metabolically processing glucose. The large intestine is primarily involved in absorbing water and electrolytes, not glucose. The gallbladder stores bile produced by the liver but is not directly involved in glucose metabolism. Although the pancreas produces insulin, a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels, the liver is mainly responsible for the metabolic processing of glucose.
During the process of deamination, the nitrogen portion of amino acids is converted to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the process of deamination, the nitrogen portion of amino acids is converted to ammonia. This occurs in the liver as part of the process to remove excess nitrogen from the body. Choice B, 'protein,' is incorrect as deamination breaks down amino acids rather than synthesizing proteins. Choice C, 'purines,' is incorrect as purines are a type of nitrogenous base found in DNA and RNA, not a product of deamination. Choice D, 'glycogen,' is incorrect as glycogen is a storage form of glucose and not a product of amino acid deamination.
What is one function of essential fatty acids?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Essential fatty acids play a crucial role in improving skin integrity by supporting the structure and function of cell membranes. This helps in maintaining healthy skin and promoting overall well-being. The other choices are incorrect because essential fatty acids do not directly control lipid digestion, reduce blood clotting time, or form chylomicrons.
How many kilocalories are provided by 15 grams of protein?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Protein provides 4 kcal per gram. Therefore, 15 grams of protein will provide 15 grams x 4 kcal/gram = 60 kcal. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not consider the caloric value of protein correctly.
Which observation provides evidence that a person has good nutritional status?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A normal weight-to-height ratio is a reliable indicator of good nutritional status as it suggests that the person is well-nourished and not underweight or overweight. Small muscle mass (choice A) can indicate malnutrition, a smooth tongue (choice C) can be a sign of vitamin deficiencies, and fragile skin (choice D) can be a sign of poor nutrition or other health issues, but they are not as direct indicators of good nutritional status as a normal weight-to-height ratio.
Where does gluconeogenesis occur?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Gluconeogenesis mainly occurs in the liver. It is a process where glucose is synthesized from non-carbohydrate sources such as amino acids and glycerol. The liver is the primary site for gluconeogenesis due to the presence of key enzymes and substrates required for this process. Muscles do not play a significant role in gluconeogenesis, making choice A incorrect. The pancreas is involved in the regulation of blood sugar levels through insulin and glucagon but is not the primary site for gluconeogenesis, so choice B is incorrect. The spleen is not a major organ involved in glucose metabolism, making choice D incorrect.
What substance activates pepsinogen to pepsin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Hydrochloric acid. Hydrochloric acid in the stomach plays a crucial role in converting pepsinogen into its active form, pepsin, which is necessary for digesting proteins. Bile (Choice A) is involved in the emulsification of fats, not in the activation of pepsinogen. Gastrin (Choice B) is a hormone that stimulates the secretion of gastric acid but does not directly activate pepsinogen. Secretin (Choice C) is a hormone that regulates the pH of the duodenum but is not responsible for the activation of pepsinogen.
What is the main constituent of blood plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: water. Water is the main component of blood plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid. It plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including transporting nutrients, regulating body temperature, and maintaining cell structure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while potassium, sodium, and calcium are essential electrolytes found in the body, they are not the main constituents of these fluids as water is.
What role do the amino acids methionine, tyrosine, and tryptophan play?
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Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Forming neurotransmitters. Methionine, tyrosine, and tryptophan are important amino acids involved in the production of neurotransmitters in the body. Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers that transmit signals across nerve cells, influencing various functions such as mood, memory, and muscle control. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because these amino acids do not primarily play a role in blocking protein breakdown, increasing insulin and thyroxine production, or decreasing energy expenditure.
The sugar to which all other sugars are converted during human metabolism is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Glucose is the primary sugar used by the body for energy and is converted from other sugars during metabolism. Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of glucose and fructose, not the end product of sugar metabolism. Fructose is a simple sugar found in fruits but needs to be converted to glucose for cellular energy. Maltose is a disaccharide composed of two glucose units and is not the final product of sugar metabolism in humans.
Foodborne illness may be caused by contamination of food with:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: microorganisms. Microorganisms, such as bacteria and viruses, are common causes of foodborne illnesses. These pathogens can contaminate food during various stages of production, processing, or preparation. Choice A, pesticides, are chemicals used to control pests and are not a common cause of foodborne illnesses. Genetically modified ingredients, choice B, refer to foods derived from genetically modified organisms (GMOs) and are not inherently linked to foodborne illnesses. Food additives, choice D, are substances added to food to preserve flavor or enhance taste and are not typically the primary cause of foodborne illnesses.
What does the Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) represent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) represents the highest amount of a nutrient that can be safely consumed without causing adverse health effects. It is not a replacement for Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) (choice A) which are nutrient intake recommendations. While the UL is established to prevent toxicity, it is not a completely safe level for people of all ages (choice B). It is also not a potentially toxic level of intake of a nutrient (choice C), but rather the level that is unlikely to cause adverse health effects.
After absorption, the end products of carbohydrate and protein digestion enter the:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: portal blood system. After absorption, carbohydrates and proteins are transported via the portal blood system to the liver for further processing and distribution to the rest of the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Enterohepatic circulation refers to the recycling of compounds between the liver and the intestines, not the direct route for absorbed nutrients. Gastrointestinal circulation is a vague and non-specific term, not specifically related to the transport of absorbed nutrients. The common bile duct is involved in transporting bile from the liver and gallbladder to the small intestine, not the end products of carbohydrate and protein digestion.
Exchange Lists for Meal Planning was devised by the American Dietetic Association in collaboration with which organization?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: the American Diabetes Association. The American Dietetic Association collaborated with the American Diabetes Association to devise the Exchange Lists for Meal Planning. This collaboration aimed to assist individuals, especially those with diabetes, in planning balanced meals. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they were not involved in the development of the Exchange Lists.
Which of the following foods are major sources of starch?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Legumes. Legumes, such as beans and lentils, are major sources of starch, providing complex carbohydrates. Fruits (choice A) mainly provide sugars rather than starch. Meats (choice B) and milk (choice D) are not significant sources of starch as they mainly provide protein and fats, respectively. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect.
Where does the absorption of most nutrients occur?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The absorption of most nutrients occurs in the small intestine. This is where digested food is broken down further and absorbed into the bloodstream through the intestinal walls. The large intestine primarily absorbs water and electrolytes, while the stomach mainly aids in digestion by breaking down food with gastric juices. The mouth is responsible for the initial mechanical breakdown of food through chewing and the enzymatic action of saliva, but absorption does not occur there.
Which chain length of fatty acids is most water-soluble and easily absorbed into the bloodstream?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Short-chain fatty acids are the most water-soluble and are more easily absorbed into the bloodstream. Very long, long, and medium-chain fatty acids are less water-soluble and are absorbed at a slower rate compared to short-chain fatty acids. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
Which hormone stimulates the gallbladder to contract?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cholecystokinin (CCK) is the hormone responsible for stimulating the gallbladder to contract and release bile into the small intestine. Secretin primarily acts on the pancreas to stimulate the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid. Gastrin functions in the stimulation of gastric acid secretion, while Gastric inhibitory polypeptide (GIP) plays a role in inhibiting gastric acid secretion and stimulating insulin release.
Which of the following are macronutrients?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Proteins are indeed macronutrients, along with carbohydrates and fats. Macronutrients are nutrients that provide energy and are required in large amounts by the body. Minerals and vitamins are considered micronutrients, as they are needed in smaller quantities. Enzymes, on the other hand, are not nutrients but rather biological molecules that act as catalysts in biochemical reactions.
In a low-carbohydrate diet, most of the calories are supplied by:
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Explanation:
In a low-carbohydrate diet, fats become the primary source of calories as carbohydrate intake is restricted. Proteins can contribute to caloric intake but are not the primary source in a low-carbohydrate diet. Carbohydrates are intentionally limited in this diet, so they do not supply most of the calories. Vitamins are essential nutrients but do not provide calories.
From where are trypsin and chymotrypsin secreted?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Trypsin and chymotrypsin are enzymes involved in protein digestion. These enzymes are secreted by the pancreas, not the small intestine, liver, or stomach. The pancreas plays a crucial role in producing digestive enzymes that aid in breaking down proteins in the small intestine. The small intestine is the site where these enzymes act, not where they are secreted. The liver is responsible for producing bile, not digestive enzymes. The stomach secretes gastric juices but not trypsin and chymotrypsin. Therefore, the correct answer is the pancreas.
After ingested food is mixed and churned with gastric secretions, the resulting semifluid mass is called:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: chyme. Chyme is the partially digested food that forms a semifluid mass after mixing with gastric juices. A is incorrect because a bolus refers to a rounded mass of food ready to be swallowed. C, rennin, is an enzyme involved in the digestion of milk proteins and not the term for the semifluid mass after food mixing with gastric secretions. D, glycogen, is a form of stored glucose in the body and is not the term used to describe the partially digested food mass in the stomach.
What is the term for the production of glucose from protein, lactate, or glycerol?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Gluconeogenesis is the correct term for the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources such as protein, lactate, or glycerol. Choice A, glycolysis, is the process of breaking down glucose into pyruvate. Choice C, glycogenolysis, is the breakdown of glycogen into glucose. Choice D, glucogenesis, is not a recognized term in biochemistry.
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