LPN LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with fluid volume deficit?
- A. Encourage oral fluid intake
- B. Administer IV fluids as ordered
- C. Monitor urine output and check electrolyte levels
- D. Monitor skin turgor and capillary refill
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging oral fluid intake is a crucial nursing intervention in managing a patient with fluid volume deficit. By encouraging oral fluid intake, the patient can increase hydration levels, helping to correct the deficit. Administering IV fluids may be necessary in severe cases or when the patient is unable to tolerate oral intake. Monitoring urine output and checking electrolyte levels are essential aspects of assessing fluid volume status, but they are not direct interventions for correcting fluid volume deficit. Monitoring skin turgor and capillary refill are important assessments for fluid volume status but are not direct management strategies.
2. A nurse manager of a med surge unit is assigning care responsibilities for the oncoming shift. A client is waiting transfer back to the unit from the PACU following thoracic surgery. To which staff member should the nurse assign the client?
- A. Charge nurse
- B. RN
- C. LVN
- D. AP
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: RN. An RN is required for managing post-surgical care in the immediate postoperative period, especially for a client following thoracic surgery. The RN is equipped with the necessary knowledge and skills to assess the client's condition, provide complex care, and recognize and respond to any complications that may arise. Assigning the client to the Charge nurse (A) may not be appropriate as the Charge nurse focuses more on administrative and managerial tasks rather than direct patient care. LVNs (C) and APs (D) may have limitations in their scope of practice when it comes to managing post-surgical care following thoracic surgery, which requires a higher level of assessment and intervention that an RN can provide.
3. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply heat to the affected area
- B. Place the client in a prone position
- C. Turn and reposition the client every 2 hours
- D. Provide the client with a bedpan every 4 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client at risk for pressure ulcers is to turn and reposition the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and reducing the risk of pressure ulcer development. Applying heat to the affected area (Choice A) can increase the risk of skin breakdown. Placing the client in a prone position (Choice B) can also increase pressure on certain areas, leading to pressure ulcers. Providing the client with a bedpan every 4 hours (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing pressure ulcers.
4. What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?
- A. Immobility and poor nutrition
- B. Increased mobility and proper hygiene
- C. Excess moisture and lack of movement
- D. Frequent turning and repositioning
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.
5. What are the key components of a neurological assessment?
- A. Assess level of consciousness and motor function
- B. Check for headache and nausea
- C. Monitor reflexes and pupil size
- D. Assess for tremors and confusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A neurological assessment includes evaluating the level of consciousness and motor function as they are key components in assessing neurological function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as headache, nausea, reflexes, pupil size, tremors, and confusion may be part of a neurological assessment but are not the key components that are fundamental for a comprehensive assessment.
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