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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
2. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with fluid volume deficit?
- A. Encourage oral fluid intake
- B. Administer IV fluids as ordered
- C. Monitor urine output and check electrolyte levels
- D. Monitor skin turgor and capillary refill
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging oral fluid intake is a crucial nursing intervention in managing a patient with fluid volume deficit. By encouraging oral fluid intake, the patient can increase hydration levels, helping to correct the deficit. Administering IV fluids may be necessary in severe cases or when the patient is unable to tolerate oral intake. Monitoring urine output and checking electrolyte levels are essential aspects of assessing fluid volume status, but they are not direct interventions for correcting fluid volume deficit. Monitoring skin turgor and capillary refill are important assessments for fluid volume status but are not direct management strategies.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication has been effective?
- A. Cardiac workload decreases
- B. Blood pressure increases
- C. Respiratory rate increases
- D. Temperature decreases
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac workload decreases. Digoxin helps reduce cardiac workload in clients with heart failure, improving symptoms. This reduction in workload indicates that the medication is effective. Choice B, blood pressure increases, is incorrect because digoxin typically does not directly affect blood pressure. Choice C, respiratory rate increases, is incorrect as an increased respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of digoxin effectiveness. Choice D, temperature decreases, is also incorrect as digoxin does not typically affect body temperature.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who has multiple sclerosis (MS) about strategies to reduce fatigue. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Exercise to the point of exhaustion
- B. Rest as needed throughout the day
- C. Avoid physical activity
- D. Exercise only once per week
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to 'Rest as needed throughout the day.' Fatigue is a common symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS), and adequate rest is essential to manage it effectively. Resting as needed helps conserve energy and prevent fatigue from worsening. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. 'Exercise to the point of exhaustion' is not recommended as it can lead to increased fatigue. 'Avoiding physical activity' entirely is not advisable as appropriate exercise can help maintain strength and energy levels. 'Exercising only once per week' may not be sufficient to combat fatigue and maintain overall well-being in clients with MS.
5. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement for a client with hyperkalemia?
- A. Administer calcium gluconate
- B. Increase fluid intake to promote potassium excretion
- C. Administer a diuretic
- D. Administer sodium bicarbonate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with hyperkalemia is to administer calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate helps counteract the effects of hyperkalemia by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may not effectively lower potassium levels. Administering a diuretic (Choice C) or sodium bicarbonate (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia and may not address the immediate need to lower potassium levels.
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