LPN LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. No bruit or thrill over the AV fistula.
- B. Redness at the site of the AV fistula.
- C. Client's complaint of pain at the AV fistula site.
- D. Swelling of the hand on the side of the AV fistula.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a chronic kidney disease who has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis, the absence of a bruit (a humming sound) or thrill (vibratory sensation) over the AV fistula indicates a potential occlusion. This finding suggests inadequate blood flow through the AV fistula, which is a critical issue requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as thrombosis or clot formation. Reporting this absence of bruit or thrill promptly to the healthcare provider is essential to ensure timely assessment and management to maintain vascular access for hemodialysis.
2. In planning the turning schedule for a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to consider what assessment finding?
- A. 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities.
- B. A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten.
- C. Warm, dry skin with a fever of 100° F.
- D. Hypoactive bowel sounds with infrequent bowel movements.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low Braden score indicates a high risk for pressure ulcers, making regular turning crucial to prevent skin breakdown.
3. The client has received 250 ml of 0.9% normal saline through the IV line in the last hour. The client is now tachypneic and has a pulse rate of 120 beats/minute, with a pulse volume of +4. In addition to reporting the assessment findings to the healthcare provider, what action should the nurse implement?
- A. Discontinue the IV and apply pressure at the site.
- B. Decrease the saline to a keep-open rate.
- C. Increase the rate of the current IV solution.
- D. Change the IV fluid to 0.45% normal saline at the same rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of fluid overload with tachypnea and a high pulse rate. Decreasing the saline to a keep-open rate is appropriate to prevent further fluid volume excess. This action allows for IV access to be maintained while reducing the fluid administered, helping to manage the symptoms of fluid overload.
4. In which situation is it most important for the registered nurse (RN) working on a medical unit to provide direct supervision?
- A. A graduate nurse needs to access a client's implanted port to start an infusion of Ringer's Lactate.
- B. A postpartum nurse pulled to the unit needs to start a transfusion of packed red blood cells.
- C. A practical nurse is preparing to assist the healthcare provider with a lumbar puncture at the bedside.
- D. An unlicensed assistive personnel is preparing to weigh an obese bedfast client using a bed scale.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Direct supervision is essential when a complex task, such as accessing an implanted port, is being performed by a less experienced healthcare provider, in this case, a graduate nurse. This oversight ensures patient safety and proper execution of the procedure, especially when it is the nurse's first time performing such a task.
5. Which intervention should the nurse implement to enhance the efficacy of the client's asthma medication therapy?
- A. Administer the albuterol inhaler before other inhaled medications.
- B. Provide oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters/minute.
- C. Encourage the client to drink three liters of fluids daily.
- D. Keep the client upright during nebulizer therapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator such as albuterol as the first step is crucial to open the airways, allowing better penetration of subsequent inhaled medications and enhancing their overall efficacy in managing asthma symptoms.
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