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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) metoprolol (Lopressor) to a client. The client's apical pulse is 58 beats/minute. What action should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
- B. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Give half the prescribed dose and recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
- D. Administer the medication and then recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario described, with the client's apical pulse being 58 beats/minute, holding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider is the correct action. A low pulse rate may indicate bradycardia and may necessitate dose adjustment or further evaluation by the healthcare provider to prevent potential complications.
2. A client is admitted with suspected meningitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Headache.
- B. Fever.
- C. Nuchal rigidity.
- D. Seizures.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Seizures in a client with suspected meningitis indicate increased intracranial pressure or other complications requiring immediate intervention. Seizures can lead to further neurological damage and need prompt management to prevent adverse outcomes. Therefore, addressing seizures promptly is crucial in the care of a client with suspected meningitis.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. No bruit or thrill over the AV fistula.
- B. Redness at the site of the AV fistula.
- C. Client's complaint of pain at the AV fistula site.
- D. Swelling of the hand on the side of the AV fistula.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a chronic kidney disease who has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis, the absence of a bruit (a humming sound) or thrill (vibratory sensation) over the AV fistula indicates a potential occlusion. This finding suggests inadequate blood flow through the AV fistula, which is a critical issue requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as thrombosis or clot formation. Reporting this absence of bruit or thrill promptly to the healthcare provider is essential to ensure timely assessment and management to maintain vascular access for hemodialysis.
4. The client is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril), and the nurse plans to educate them about its purpose. Which statement should the nurse provide?
- A. It will help you function better in the community.
- B. The medication will help you think more clearly.
- C. You will be able to cope with your symptoms.
- D. It will improve your grooming and hygiene.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clozapine (Clozaril) is an antipsychotic medication that is known to improve cognitive function and thought clarity in individuals with schizophrenia. It primarily helps in managing symptoms related to thought processes rather than focusing on community function, coping with symptoms, or grooming and hygiene.
5. A male infant born at 30-weeks gestation at an outlying hospital is being prepared for transport to a Level IV neonatal facility. His respirations are 90/min, and his heart rate is 150 beats per minute. Which drug is the transport team most likely to administer to this infant?
- A. Ampicillin (Omnipen) 25 mg/kg slow IV push.
- B. Gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) 2.5 mg/kg IV.
- C. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 20 micrograms/kg IV.
- D. Beractant (Survanta) 100 mg/kg per endotracheal tube.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the infant is a preterm neonate with respiratory distress and is being transported to a Level IV neonatal facility. The drug most likely to be administered by the transport team is Beractant (Survanta) via endotracheal tube. Beractant is a surfactant used to treat respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants by improving lung compliance and reducing the need for mechanical ventilation.
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