Nursing Elites

1. Which activity is most important for a client recovering from a hip replacement to avoid during the first few weeks of recovery?

• A. Sitting in a chair for short periods
• B. Crossing the legs while sitting
• C. Walking with assistance
• D. Performing light stretching exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crossing the legs while sitting. Cross-leg position after a hip replacement can significantly increase the risk of hip dislocation. During the first few weeks of recovery, it is crucial for clients to avoid crossing their legs to protect the new joint. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical during the initial recovery phase. Sitting in a chair for short periods, walking with assistance, and performing light stretching exercises are generally encouraged activities that can help in the recovery process without posing a significant risk of complications like hip dislocation.

2. A client who had a vasectomy is in the post-recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse?

• A. Until the healthcare provider has determined that your ejaculate doesn't contain sperm, continue to use another form of contraception.
• B. This procedure doesn't impede the production of male hormones or the production of sperm in the testicles. The sperm can no longer enter your semen, and no sperm are in your ejaculate.
• C. After your vasectomy, strenuous activity needs to be avoided for at least 48 hours. If your work doesn't involve hard physical labor, you can return to your job as soon as you feel up to it. The stitches generally dissolve in seven to ten days.
• D. The healthcare provider at this clinic recommends rest, ice, an athletic supporter, or over-the-counter pain medication to relieve any discomfort.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important point to reinforce after a vasectomy is to continue using contraception until the healthcare provider confirms the absence of sperm in the ejaculate. Choice A is correct because it emphasizes the necessity of another form of contraception until sperm absence is confirmed. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on how a vasectomy works anatomically rather than the need for ongoing contraception. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses post-vasectomy care but does not address the need for continued contraception. Choice D is also incorrect as it refers to general post-procedure recommendations but does not highlight the crucial aspect of using contraception until sperm absence is confirmed.

3. A client is admitted with a suspected bowel obstruction. What assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Absent bowel sounds in all quadrants.
• B. Distended abdomen with a firm, rigid feel.
• C. Frequent episodes of nausea and vomiting.
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds and abdominal cramping.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A distended abdomen with a firm, rigid feel is a concerning sign that suggests a complication such as bowel perforation, which requires immediate intervention. Absent bowel sounds can be expected in bowel obstructions but are not as urgent as a rigid abdomen. Frequent episodes of nausea and vomiting are common with bowel obstructions but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening complication. Hyperactive bowel sounds and abdominal cramping are more indicative of bowel obstruction rather than a complication requiring immediate attention.

4. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
• B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
• C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
• D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.

5. A client with a history of stroke is receiving warfarin. What is the nurse's priority assessment?

• A. Check the client's blood pressure.
• B. Assess for signs of bleeding.
• C. Assess the client's neurological status.
• D. Monitor the client's intake and output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for signs of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding in patients. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from gums is crucial. Checking the client's blood pressure (choice A) is important but not the priority in this situation. Assessing the client's neurological status (choice C) is essential in stroke patients but is not the priority related to warfarin therapy. Monitoring intake and output (choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not the priority when a client is on warfarin, as assessing for bleeding takes precedence.

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