Nursing Elites

1. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, which finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Stridor
• B. Nausea
• C. Headache
• D. Pruritus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor indicates bronchospasm, a serious reaction that can compromise the client's airway. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further respiratory distress. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are potential side effects of ceftriaxone but are not as immediately life-threatening as airway compromise indicated by stridor.

2. In a client with cirrhosis admitted with jaundice and ascites, which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dl
• B. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dl
• C. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
• D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with cirrhosis as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. Elevated ammonia levels are associated with impaired liver function and can lead to mental status changes. Serum bilirubin (Choice A) is elevated in cirrhosis but not as concerning for acute intervention as high ammonia levels. Serum albumin (Choice B) and serum sodium (Choice D) levels are important in cirrhotic patients but are not as directly associated with hepatic encephalopathy as ammonia levels.

3. A 59-year-old male client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, nontender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?

• A. Malignancy
• B. Infection
• C. Benign cyst
• D. Lymphadenitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malignancy. A large, non-tender, hardened lymph node is a typical sign of malignancy and warrants further investigation. Choice B (Infection) is incorrect because typically in infections, lymph nodes are tender and may show signs of inflammation. Choice C (Benign cyst) is incorrect as a benign cyst would usually present as a soft, mobile lump. Choice D (Lymphadenitis) is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes due to inflammation.

4. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum calcium level of 9 mg/dl
• B. Serum potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dl
• D. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dl. In a client with ESRD receiving hemodialysis, serum creatinine should be closely monitored. Elevated creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A), serum potassium levels (Choice B), and serum sodium levels (Choice D) is also important in clients with ESRD, but the most crucial indicator of kidney function in this case is serum creatinine.

5. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in the daily plan of care for a client with a burned extremity?

• A. Distal pulse intensity
• B. Skin integrity
• C. Pain levels
• D. Range of motion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Distal pulse intensity. Monitoring distal pulses is crucial to ensure that circulation to the extremity is not compromised. This assessment helps in detecting any signs of decreased circulation, which is vital in managing a burned extremity. While skin integrity (choice B), pain levels (choice C), and range of motion (choice D) are also important assessments, monitoring distal pulse intensity takes precedence as it directly reflects the perfusion status of the affected extremity in a burned client.

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