Nursing Elites

1. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, which finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Stridor
• B. Nausea
• C. Headache
• D. Pruritus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor indicates bronchospasm, a serious reaction that can compromise the client's airway. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further respiratory distress. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are potential side effects of ceftriaxone but are not as immediately life-threatening as airway compromise indicated by stridor.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes atenolol 50 mg daily for a client with angina pectoris. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering this medication?

• A. Irregular pulse.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Chest pain.
• D. Urinary frequency.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irregular pulse. An irregular pulse may indicate an arrhythmia, which could be exacerbated by atenolol, a beta-blocker used to treat angina pectoris. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so if the patient already has an irregular pulse, it could worsen with the medication. Tachycardia (choice B) would actually be an expected finding in a patient with angina pectoris, and atenolol is used to help reduce the heart rate in such cases. Chest pain (choice C) is a symptom that atenolol is meant to alleviate, so it would not be a reason to withhold the medication. Urinary frequency (choice D) is not directly related to the administration of atenolol for angina pectoris and would not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

3. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
• B. A pelvic exam is also needed before cancer is ruled out
• C. Pap smear evaluation should be continued every six months
• D. One additional negative Pap smear in six months is needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 60-year-old female client with a family history of ovarian cancer and an abdominal mass, further evaluation involving surgery may be needed to rule out ovarian cancer. The presence of an abdominal mass raises suspicion for a possible malignancy, and a negative Pap smear result does not rule out ovarian cancer. A pelvic exam alone may not provide sufficient information to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer. Continuing Pap smear evaluations every six months or waiting for one additional negative Pap smear in six months is not appropriate in this scenario, as the abdominal mass requires immediate attention and further evaluation.

4. An adult male who fell from a roof and fractured his left femur is admitted for surgical stabilization after having a soft cast applied in the emergency department. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Weak palpable distal pulses
• B. Pain at the fracture site
• C. Mild swelling of the leg
• D. Bruising around the fracture site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with a fractured femur, weak palpable distal pulses can indicate compromised circulation to the lower extremity. This finding suggests a potential vascular compromise that requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications like compartment syndrome or ischemia. Pain at the fracture site, mild swelling of the leg, and bruising around the fracture site are expected following such an injury and surgical stabilization, and while they should be monitored, they do not require immediate intervention like addressing compromised circulation.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dl
• D. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dl

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with CKD as it indicates hyperkalemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent cardiac complications. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, particularly in patients with impaired kidney function. Serum sodium, creatinine, and blood glucose levels, while important, are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia in this context.

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