HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, which finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Stridor
- B. Nausea
- C. Headache
- D. Pruritus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor indicates bronchospasm, a serious reaction that can compromise the client's airway. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further respiratory distress. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are potential side effects of ceftriaxone but are not as immediately life-threatening as airway compromise indicated by stridor.
2. A male client with impaired renal function who takes ibuprofen daily for chronic arthritis is admitted with gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. After administering IV fluids and a blood transfusion, his blood pressure is 100/70, and his renal output is 20 ml/hour. Which intervention should the nurse include in care?
- A. Maintain the client NPO during the diuresis phase.
- B. Evaluate daily serial renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations.
- C. Observe the urine character for sedimentation and cloudy appearance.
- D. Monitor for onset of polyuria greater than 150ml/hour.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Evaluating daily renal laboratory studies is crucial in this scenario. The client has impaired renal function, recent GI bleeding, and is at risk for further kidney damage due to ibuprofen use. Monitoring renal labs helps assess kidney function and detect any progressive elevations, guiding further interventions. Option A is not directly related to renal function monitoring. Option C focuses more on urine appearance than renal function assessment. Option D mentions polyuria, which is excessive urine output, but the question describes a client with reduced renal output.
3. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer intravenous insulin as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's urine output.
- C. Administer intravenous fluids.
- D. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering intravenous insulin is the initial priority in managing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Insulin helps to reduce blood glucose levels and correct metabolic acidosis, addressing the underlying cause of DKA. Monitoring urine output (choice B) is important but is not the first intervention needed. Administering intravenous fluids (choice C) is essential to correct dehydration in DKA, but insulin therapy takes precedence. Administering 50% dextrose IV push (choice D) is contraindicated in DKA as it can exacerbate hyperglycemia.
4. The charge nurse observes a new nurse preparing to insert an intravenous (IV) catheter. The new nurse has gathered supplies, including intravenous catheters, an intravenous insertion kit, and a 4x4 sterile gauze dressing to cover and secure the insertion site. What action should the charge nurse take?
- A. Instruct the nurse to use a transparent dressing over the site
- B. Allow the new nurse to proceed with the procedure
- C. Assist the new nurse with the insertion
- D. Replace the 4x4 gauze with a larger dressing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the nurse to use a transparent dressing over the site. Transparent dressings allow for continuous observation of the IV site, reducing the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because the charge nurse should intervene to ensure the new nurse follows best practices. Choice C is incorrect as the charge nurse should not just assist but provide guidance on the correct procedure. Choice D is incorrect because the size of the dressing is not the issue; it's the type of dressing that allows for better observation.
5. During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the nurse investigate first?
- A. Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds
- B. Oxygen saturation rate of 88%
- C. Eight premature ventricular beats every minute
- D. Disconnected monitor signal for the last 6 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds. Respiratory apnea indicates a cessation of breathing, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention. Priority should be given to assessing and managing airway, breathing, and circulation. Option B, oxygen saturation rate of 88%, can indicate hypoxemia, but addressing the lack of breathing takes precedence. Option C, eight premature ventricular beats every minute, and option D, a disconnected monitor signal, are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to respiratory apnea.
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