Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is completing a client's preoperative routine and finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Witness the client's signature on the permit.
• B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
• C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the surgery.
• D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before the anesthesia is administered.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should inform the surgeon immediately that the operative permit is not signed and that the client has questions about the surgery. It is crucial for the surgeon to be aware of the situation so they can address the client's concerns, explain the procedure, and obtain the necessary signed permit before proceeding with the surgery. This ensures informed consent and compliance with preoperative protocols.

2. Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching plan for an adult client with hypernatremia?

• A. Monitor daily urine output volume
• B. Drink plenty of water whenever thirsty
• C. Use salt tablets for sodium content
• D. Review food labels for sodium content

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hypernatremia, there is an excess of sodium in the blood. Reviewing food labels for sodium content is crucial as it helps the client identify and avoid high-sodium foods, which can contribute to elevated sodium levels. Monitoring urine output volume may be important for other conditions but is not directly related to managing hypernatremia. Drinking water whenever thirsty is generally good advice for staying hydrated but does not specifically address the issue of high sodium levels. Using salt tablets would worsen hypernatremia by further increasing sodium intake.

3. During the suctioning of a tracheostomy tube, if the catheter appears to attach to the tracheal walls and creates a pulling sensation, what is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Release the suction by opening the vent.
• B. Continue suctioning to remove obstruction.
• C. Increase the pressure.
• D. Suction deeper.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the catheter of the suctioning device attaches to the tracheal walls, causing a pulling sensation, the nurse should release the suction by opening the vent. This action will alleviate the pulling sensation and prevent trauma to the delicate tracheal walls. Continuing suctioning or applying more pressure can lead to tissue damage and should be avoided. Suctioning deeper can increase the risk of injuring the patient's airway.

4. The nurse-manager of a skilled nursing (chronic care) unit is instructing UAPs on ways to prevent complications of immobility. Which intervention should be included in this instruction?

• A. Perform range-of-motion exercises to prevent contractures.
• B. Decrease the client's fluid intake to prevent diarrhea.
• C. Massage the client's legs to reduce the occurrence of embolisms.
• D. Turn the client from side to back every shift.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing range-of-motion exercises is essential in preventing contractures, which are common complications of immobility. These exercises help maintain joint flexibility and muscle strength, reducing the risk of contractures that can lead to functional limitations or pain for the client. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing fluid intake does not prevent immobility complications, but it can lead to dehydration. Massaging the client's legs does not directly address the prevention of immobility complications like contractures. Turning the client from side to back every shift is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not directly address complications of immobility like contractures.

5. The nursing staff in the cardiovascular intensive care unit is creating a continuous quality improvement project on social media that addresses coronary artery disease (CAD). Which action should the nurse implement to protect client privacy?

• A. Remove identifying information of the clients who participated
• B. Recall that authored content may be legally discoverable
• C. Share material from credible, peer-reviewed sources only
• D. Respect all copyright laws when adding website content

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To protect client privacy on social media, it is essential to remove any identifying information of clients who participated in the project. This ensures that sensitive information is not disclosed without consent and maintains confidentiality. Choice B is incorrect because while authored content may be legally discoverable, it does not directly relate to protecting client privacy on social media. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to the credibility of sources, not client privacy. Choice D is also incorrect as it focuses on copyright laws rather than client privacy protection.

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