Nursing Elites

1. What is the most important assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct before the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client at 40 weeks' gestation?

• A. Maternal blood pressure.
• B. Level of pain sensation.
• C. Station of presenting part.
• D. Variability of fetal heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing maternal blood pressure is crucial before administering epidural anesthesia because it can cause hypotension, affecting both the mother and the fetus. Hypotension can lead to decreased placental perfusion, potentially compromising the fetal oxygen supply. Monitoring and maintaining maternal blood pressure within a safe range are essential to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the fetus during the administration of epidural anesthesia. The other options, such as assessing the level of pain sensation, station of presenting part, and variability of fetal heart rate, are important in obstetric care but are not as critical as monitoring maternal blood pressure to prevent complications related to epidural anesthesia administration.

2. The LPN/LVN should explain to a 30-year-old gravida client that alpha fetoprotein testing is recommended for which purpose?

• A. Detect cardiovascular disorders.
• B. Screen for neural tube defects.
• C. Monitor placental functioning.
• D. Assess for maternal pre-eclampsia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Screen for neural tube defects. Alpha fetoprotein testing is primarily used to screen for neural tube defects and other fetal abnormalities. It is not used to detect cardiovascular disorders, monitor placental functioning, or assess for maternal pre-eclampsia.

3. A new mother who is breastfeeding her 4-week-old infant and has type 1 diabetes reports that her insulin needs have decreased since the birth of her child. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Inform her that a decreased need for insulin occurs while breastfeeding.
• B. Counsel her to increase her caloric intake.
• C. Advise the client to breastfeed more frequently.
• D. Schedule an appointment for the client with the diabetic nurse educator.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. During breastfeeding, insulin needs often decrease due to the metabolic demands of milk production. Therefore, the nurse should inform the client that this decrease in insulin requirements is a normal response to breastfeeding. Choice B is incorrect as increasing caloric intake is not directly related to the decrease in insulin needs during breastfeeding. Choice C is incorrect as advising the client to breastfeed more frequently does not address the issue of decreased insulin needs. Choice D is incorrect as scheduling an appointment with the diabetic nurse educator is not necessary at this point since the decreased need for insulin is a common physiological response to breastfeeding.

4. A multiparous client with active herpes lesions is admitted to the unit with spontaneous rupture of membranes. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain blood culture.
• B. Administer penicillin.
• C. Cover lesion with a dressing.
• D. Prepare her for cesarean section.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Active herpes lesions at the time of delivery increase the risk of neonatal transmission. The most appropriate action in this scenario is to prepare the client for a cesarean section. A cesarean section is often recommended to reduce the risk of neonatal transmission of herpes simplex virus during delivery, especially when active lesions are present. This intervention helps minimize direct contact between the newborn and the infected genital tract secretions, thereby decreasing the risk of transmission.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes terbutaline (Brethine) for a client in preterm labor. Before initiating this prescription, it is most important for the LPN/LVN to assess the client for which condition?

• A. Gestational diabetes.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Urinary tract infection.
• D. Swelling in lower extremities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gestational diabetes. Terbutaline (Brethine) is known to cause hyperglycemia, so it is crucial to assess for gestational diabetes before administering it. Assessing for elevated blood pressure (choice B), urinary tract infection (choice C), or swelling in lower extremities (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of terbutaline in causing hyperglycemia.

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