what is the most important assessment for the nurse to conduct before administration of epidural anesthesia to a client who is at 40 weeks gestation
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Maternity Test Bank

1. What is the most important assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct before the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client at 40 weeks' gestation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing maternal blood pressure is crucial before administering epidural anesthesia because it can cause hypotension, affecting both the mother and the fetus. Hypotension can lead to decreased placental perfusion, potentially compromising the fetal oxygen supply. Monitoring and maintaining maternal blood pressure within a safe range are essential to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the fetus during the administration of epidural anesthesia. The other options, such as assessing the level of pain sensation, station of presenting part, and variability of fetal heart rate, are important in obstetric care but are not as critical as monitoring maternal blood pressure to prevent complications related to epidural anesthesia administration.

2. A 36-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery with severe abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. Her abdomen is rigid and tender to touch. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is 90 beats/minute, and the maternal heart rate is 120 beats/minute. What action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider from the client's bedside. The clinical presentation of severe abdominal pain, bright red vaginal bleeding, rigid and tender abdomen, along with fetal bradycardia (FHR 90 bpm) and maternal tachycardia (120 bpm) indicates an urgent need for medical intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for immediate assessment and decision-making to address the critical condition and ensure timely and appropriate management for both the mother and fetus.

3. A 5-year-old child is admitted to the pediatric unit with fever and pain secondary to a sickle cell crisis. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a child with a sickle cell crisis, the priority intervention is to initiate normal saline IV at 50 ml/hr to manage dehydration and help alleviate pain. This intervention helps improve hydration status and supports the circulation of sickled red blood cells, reducing the risk of vaso-occlusive episodes and associated pain. Obtaining a culture of any sputum or wound drainage (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering a loading dose of penicillin IM (Choice C) is important but not the first intervention. Administering the initial dose of folic acid PO (Choice D) is beneficial but does not address the immediate need for hydration in a sickle cell crisis.

4. A 10-year-old is admitted to the orthopedic unit with a diagnosis of slipped femoral capital epiphysis (SFCE). What focus should the nurse include in this child’s plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of slipped femoral capital epiphysis, surgical intervention is often required. Post-surgery care is crucial to prevent complications such as infection and ensure proper healing. This care includes monitoring and managing pin and incision sites for signs of infection, promoting wound healing, and preventing postoperative complications. The focus on pin and incision care is essential for the child's recovery and overall well-being.

5. The healthcare provider notes on the fetal monitor that a laboring client has a variable deceleration. Which action should the healthcare provider implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Changing the client's position is the priority intervention for variable decelerations as it can relieve pressure on the umbilical cord, potentially resolving the deceleration and improving fetal oxygenation. Assessing cervical dilation, administering oxygen via facemask, and turning off the oxytocin infusion are important interventions but addressing the fetal distress caused by variable decelerations takes precedence.

Similar Questions

A 4-week-old premature infant has been receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) for the last three weeks. Which assessment finding indicates to the healthcare provider that the drug is effective?
While preparing a 10-year-old with a lacerated forehead for suturing, the nurse notices both parents and a 12-year-old sibling at the child’s bedside. Which instruction best supports the family's involvement?
The LPN/LVN is providing discharge teaching for a client who is 24 hours postpartum. The nurse explains to the client that her vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. The client asks, 'What if I start having red bleeding after it changes?' What should the nurse instruct the client to do?
In caring for a 4-year-old boy recently diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), which characteristic of the disease is most important for the nurse to focus on during the initial teaching?
When should the LPN/LVN encourage the laboring client to begin pushing?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses