what are the signs and symptoms of a pulmonary embolism
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ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. What are the signs and symptoms of a pulmonary embolism?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pulmonary embolism can manifest with sudden shortness of breath, chest pain, and coughing up blood. These symptoms are classic presentations of a pulmonary embolism due to the blockage of blood flow to the lungs. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' Each symptom alone can be seen in various other conditions, but when occurring together, they strongly suggest a pulmonary embolism. Sudden shortness of breath is due to decreased oxygenation, chest pain can result from the strain on the heart, and coughing with blood may indicate damage to the lung tissue. Choosing any single symptom would not encompass the full range of presentations seen in a pulmonary embolism.

2. What are the signs of an acute myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath. These are classic signs of an acute myocardial infarction. Choice B is incorrect because nausea, vomiting, and high fever are not typical signs of a heart attack. Choice C is incorrect as headache, confusion, and low blood pressure are not specific to myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because an acute myocardial infarction typically presents with an increased heart rate, not bradycardia.

3. Which nursing action is best when managing a client with severe anxiety?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to maintain a calm manner. When managing a client with severe anxiety, the nurse's calm presence can help the client feel more secure and reduce their anxiety levels. It is essential to create a safe and supportive environment. Helping the client identify thoughts prior to anxiety (choice B) may be beneficial in cognitive-behavioral interventions but may not be the initial best action for severe anxiety. Administering anti-anxiety medication (choice C) should be done by a healthcare provider's order and is not the first-line intervention for managing severe anxiety. Initiating seclusion (choice D) should only be considered as a last resort if the client is at risk of harm to themselves or others, as it can further escalate anxiety and should not be the initial action.

4. What are the risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and poor diet are established risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes. Obesity puts extra pressure on the body's ability to properly control blood sugar levels. A sedentary lifestyle contributes to weight gain and insulin resistance. Poor diet, especially one high in processed foods and sugary beverages, can also increase the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because age, gender, family history, smoking, alcohol consumption, and hypertension can impact overall health but are not the primary risk factors for Type 2 diabetes.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has peptic ulcer disease about preventing exacerbations. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit alcohol consumption. Alcohol consumption can aggravate peptic ulcer disease by increasing gastric acid secretion, potentially leading to exacerbations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended because antacids containing magnesium can interfere with other medications or conditions the client may have. Choice C is a good recommendation; however, it is not the priority instruction for preventing exacerbations. Choice D is also incorrect as caffeine can stimulate gastric acid secretion, which can worsen peptic ulcer disease.

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