a nurse is providing teaching about a clear liquid diet which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to avoid
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers

1. A patient is being educated about a clear liquid diet. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the patient to avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orange sherbet. A clear liquid diet consists of liquids that are transparent and easily digestible. Orange sherbet, being a frozen dessert, is not a clear liquid and should be avoided. Choices A, B, and C are all acceptable in a clear liquid diet. Lemon-lime sports drinks, ginger ale, and black coffee are clear liquids that can be included in the diet as they are transparent and leave little residue in the gastrointestinal tract, unlike orange sherbet.

2. A client with a tracheostomy is experiencing increased secretions and labored breathing. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to suction the tracheostomy first. When a client with a tracheostomy is experiencing increased secretions and labored breathing, suctioning the tracheostomy is the priority intervention to clear the airway and improve breathing. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice A) may help with breathing but should come after ensuring the airway is clear. Encouraging the client to cough (Choice C) may not be effective in clearing secretions from the tracheostomy. Notifying the provider (Choice D) can be done after ensuring immediate airway clearance.

3. A client has a prescription for ranitidine 150 mg PO BID. Available is ranitidine syrup 15 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer each day?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To administer a total of 300 mg daily (150 mg PO BID), the nurse should give 20 mL of the syrup. This is calculated by dividing the total daily dose (300 mg) by the concentration of the syrup (15 mg/mL), which equals 20 mL. Choice B (15 mL), C (25 mL), and D (10 mL) are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the required volume of syrup needed to deliver the prescribed dose.

4. A nurse manager is updating protocols for belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. When using belt restraints, it is crucial to document the client's condition regularly to ensure their safety and well-being. This guideline allows for ongoing assessment of the client's need for restraints and any potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed frame but to a non-moving part of the bed to prevent harm in case of bed movement. Choice C is incorrect as PRN (as needed) restraint prescription should not be a routine practice and should only be considered after other interventions have been attempted. Choice D is incorrect as restraints should be removed and reevaluated based on the client's condition, not solely on a fixed time schedule.

5. What are the key components of a neurological assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A neurological assessment includes evaluating the level of consciousness and motor function as they are key components in assessing neurological function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as headache, nausea, reflexes, pupil size, tremors, and confusion may be part of a neurological assessment but are not the key components that are fundamental for a comprehensive assessment.

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