a nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who is undergoing chemotherapy about measures to prevent infection. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to avoid crowded places. Immunocompromised clients undergoing chemotherapy are at a higher risk of infections, so avoiding crowded places can help reduce exposure to pathogens. Wearing a mask at home is not necessary unless someone in the household is sick. Drinking unfiltered water can introduce harmful bacteria, increasing the risk of infection. Avoiding washing hands frequently is incorrect as hand hygiene is crucial in preventing the spread of infections.

3. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.

4. A client with a pressure ulcer is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following is the most appropriate action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cleaning a wound from the center outwards is the most appropriate action as it helps prevent the spread of infection. Choice A is incorrect as phenol solutions can be harmful to the wound and delay healing. Choice B may increase the risk of infection as warmth can promote bacterial growth. Choice D is unnecessary unless there are signs of infection present.

5. What are the complications of diabetic ketoacidosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrolyte imbalance and dehydration. Diabetic ketoacidosis can lead to imbalances in electrolytes such as potassium, sodium, and chloride, as well as dehydration due to excess urination and vomiting. These complications should be managed promptly with appropriate fluids and insulin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypoglycemia and increased urination are not typical complications of diabetic ketoacidosis; kidney failure and respiratory distress may occur in severe cases but are not the primary complications. Liver failure and hypertension are not directly associated with diabetic ketoacidosis.

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