Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

• A. Total bilirubin.
• B. Urine ketones.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

2. What are the key components of a neurological assessment?

• A. Assess level of consciousness and motor function
• B. Check for headache and nausea
• C. Monitor reflexes and pupil size
• D. Assess for tremors and confusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A neurological assessment includes evaluating the level of consciousness and motor function as they are key components in assessing neurological function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as headache, nausea, reflexes, pupil size, tremors, and confusion may be part of a neurological assessment but are not the key components that are fundamental for a comprehensive assessment.

3. A client post-surgery has a chest tube. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to perform?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 30 minutes every 4 hours
• B. Check for air leaks and ensure the chest tube is functioning properly
• C. Position the client in a high Fowler's position
• D. Encourage frequent coughing to clear secretions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check for air leaks and ensure the chest tube is functioning properly. This is crucial post-surgery to prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Clamping the chest tube, positioning the client, or encouraging coughing are not appropriate assessments for a client with a chest tube post-surgery and could lead to serious issues if done incorrectly.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is receiving insulin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. A fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL
• B. A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL
• C. A hemoglobin A1c of 6%
• D. A fasting blood glucose of 100 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which may necessitate insulin adjustment to better control the client's blood sugar levels. A fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL (choice A) is within the normal range, a hemoglobin A1c of 6% (choice C) is indicative of good long-term blood sugar control, and a fasting blood glucose of 100 mg/dL (choice D) is also within the normal range. Therefore, these findings do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

5. A client who is taking furosemide is being taught by a nurse about dietary modifications. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend to the client?

• A. Bananas
• B. Cabbage
• C. Potatoes
• D. Carrots

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which is essential for clients taking furosemide to prevent hypokalemia. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause potassium loss through increased urine output. Therefore, recommending foods rich in potassium, such as bananas, can help maintain potassium levels within the normal range. Choices B, C, and D are not the best recommendations in this case as they are not particularly high in potassium.

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