Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

• A. Total bilirubin.
• B. Urine ketones.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

2. What are the key steps in administering oral medications to a patient with dysphagia?

• A. Crush medications and mix with food
• B. Use a straw to facilitate swallowing
• C. Encourage the patient to drink thickened liquids
• D. Have the patient lie flat during administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Crush medications and mix with food. When administering oral medications to a patient with dysphagia, crushing the medications and mixing them with food is a common method to aid in swallowing. Choice B is incorrect because using a straw could pose a choking hazard for patients with dysphagia. Choice C is incorrect as thickened liquids may not always be suitable for all medications. Choice D is incorrect because having the patient lie flat can increase the risk of aspiration, which is not recommended for patients with dysphagia.

3. A client diagnosed with dementia wanders the halls of the locked nursing unit during the day. To ensure the client's safety while walking in the halls, the nurse should do which of the following?

• A. Administer PRN haloperidol (Haldol) to decrease the need to walk
• B. Assess the client's gait for steadiness
• C. Restrain the client in a geriatric chair
• D. Administer PRN lorazepam (Ativan) to provide sedation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the client's gait for steadiness is the most appropriate action to ensure the safety of a client with dementia while walking. This allows the nurse to identify any issues that may increase the risk of falls or accidents. Administering PRN haloperidol or lorazepam is not indicated as the first-line approach in managing wandering behavior and can have adverse effects like increased risk of falls, confusion, or oversedation. Restraint use should be avoided whenever possible, as it can lead to physical and psychological harm to the client.

4. What is the most appropriate response when a client with chronic kidney disease asks about fluid restrictions?

• A. Fluid restrictions are not needed for all clients with chronic kidney disease.
• B. You may need to limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
• C. Fluid restrictions are based on your lab results and daily weights.
• D. Restricting fluids is only necessary during dialysis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response when a client with chronic kidney disease asks about fluid restrictions is to inform them that limiting fluid intake may be necessary to prevent fluid overload. This is crucial in managing the condition and preventing complications such as edema and electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect as fluid restrictions are commonly advised for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice C is partially correct as fluid restrictions are indeed based on lab results and daily weights, but the primary goal is to prevent fluid overload. Choice D is incorrect because fluid restrictions are not limited to just during dialysis; they are often recommended throughout the day to manage the condition.

5. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with anemia?

• A. Monitor hemoglobin levels and provide iron supplements
• B. Administer B12 injections
• C. Monitor for signs of infection and administer folic acid
• D. Administer oxygen therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: To assess and manage a patient with anemia, monitoring hemoglobin levels and providing iron supplements are crucial. Anemia is commonly caused by iron deficiency, making iron supplementation a cornerstone of treatment. B12 injections (Choice B) are more relevant for treating megaloblastic anemia, not the typical iron-deficiency anemia. Monitoring for signs of infection and administering folic acid (Choice C) are important in specific types of anemia like megaloblastic anemia, but not the first-line approach for anemia management. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for anemia unless severe hypoxemia is present, which is not typically seen in anemia.

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