a nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

2. A client with a tracheostomy is exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with a tracheostomy is experiencing respiratory distress, the priority action is to suction the tracheostomy to clear the airway and improve breathing. This helps remove secretions or blockages that may be causing the distress. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice A) can be done after ensuring immediate airway clearance. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice C) would not address the primary issue of airway clearance in a tracheostomy patient. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (Choice D) may be necessary but should come after ensuring the airway is clear.

3. A nurse is caring for an infant who is receiving IV fluids for dehydration. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign that the IV fluids are effectively treating dehydration. Tachycardia (choice A) and hypotension (choice B) are signs of dehydration and would not be considered positive responses to therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) can worsen dehydration and is not a positive response to IV fluid therapy.

4. Which dietary instruction is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Limiting the intake of phosphorus-rich foods is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease. In individuals with chronic kidney disease, the kidneys cannot filter phosphorus effectively, leading to a buildup in the blood. This can result in bone and heart problems. Therefore, reducing phosphorus intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium intake may be harmful as potassium levels can accumulate in the blood with impaired kidney function. Encouraging protein-rich foods may not be suitable as excessive protein intake can strain the kidneys. Advising to increase fluid intake should be done cautiously as individuals with chronic kidney disease may need to restrict fluids based on their stage of the disease.

5. What are the key signs of respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased respiratory rate and use of accessory muscles are key signs of respiratory distress. When a person is experiencing respiratory distress, their respiratory rate typically increases as the body tries to compensate for the inadequate oxygenation. Additionally, the use of accessory muscles indicates that the person is working harder to breathe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the key signs of respiratory distress. A decreased respiratory rate, cyanosis, altered mental status, and bradycardia are not typical signs of respiratory distress.

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