what should a nurse do when they observe signs of phlebitis in a client receiving iv fluids
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN

1. What should a healthcare professional do when they observe signs of phlebitis in a client receiving IV fluids?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When signs of phlebitis are observed in a client receiving IV fluids, the appropriate action is to apply a warm compress. This helps to reduce discomfort and swelling at the site of the IV insertion. Applying a cold compress may not be as effective in this case and could potentially worsen the condition. While notifying the physician is important, providing immediate comfort to the client through a warm compress is the initial recommended intervention. Administering anti-inflammatory medication should only be done under the direction of a healthcare provider after assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.

2. A client with a tracheostomy is experiencing increased secretions and labored breathing. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to suction the tracheostomy first. When a client with a tracheostomy is experiencing increased secretions and labored breathing, suctioning the tracheostomy is the priority intervention to clear the airway and improve breathing. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice A) may help with breathing but should come after ensuring the airway is clear. Encouraging the client to cough (Choice C) may not be effective in clearing secretions from the tracheostomy. Notifying the provider (Choice D) can be done after ensuring immediate airway clearance.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical history of a client with dementia. Which of the following findings should be addressed immediately?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and agitation in clients with dementia should be addressed immediately as they can indicate underlying causes such as pain, discomfort, or unmet needs. Addressing these symptoms promptly can help prevent the escalation of behavioral issues and improve the client's quality of life. While frequent episodes of wandering at night, mild confusion during the day, and incontinence are also important issues to address in clients with dementia, restlessness and agitation usually require immediate attention to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.

4. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

5. What is the most important intervention when managing a client with delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Identify any reversible causes of delirium.' When managing a client with delirium, it is crucial to first identify and address any reversible factors contributing to the delirium. Administering sedatives (Choice A) may worsen delirium and is not the primary intervention. Increasing environmental stimulation (Choice C) can exacerbate symptoms. Limiting noise and providing a calm environment (Choice D) are beneficial but not as crucial as identifying reversible causes.

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