HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A client with Type 2 diabetes is admitted with frequent hyperglycemic episodes and glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) of 10%. What actions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Mixing glargine with aspart insulin to manage glucose levels.
- B. Teaching foot care to prevent injuries.
- C. Coordinating carbohydrate-controlled meals and subcutaneous injections.
- D. Reviewing site rotation for insulin injections.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In managing a client with Type 2 diabetes experiencing frequent hyperglycemic episodes and with a high A1C level, it is crucial to coordinate carbohydrate-controlled meals and subcutaneous injections. This approach helps regulate blood glucose levels effectively. Mixing glargine with aspart insulin (Choice A) is not a recommended practice as these insulins have different onset and peak times. Teaching foot care (Choice B) is important in diabetes management but is not the priority in this scenario. Reviewing site rotation for insulin injections (Choice D) is important to prevent lipodystrophy but is not the immediate action needed to address the client's hyperglycemia and high A1C level.
2. A female client taking prednisone reports feeling tired after stopping the corticosteroid abruptly. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Auscultate breath sounds.
- B. Measure vital signs.
- C. Palpate the abdomen.
- D. Observe the skin for bruising.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to palpate the abdomen. When a client abruptly stops taking prednisone, there is a risk of adrenal insufficiency, which can present with symptoms like fatigue. Palpating the abdomen is crucial to assess for signs of adrenal crisis, such as abdominal pain, which can indicate severe adrenal insufficiency. Auscultating breath sounds (Choice A) and observing the skin for bruising (Choice D) are not the priority interventions in this situation. While measuring vital signs (Choice B) is important, palpating the abdomen takes precedence in this case to assess for potential adrenal insufficiency.
3. An adult client is admitted to the emergency department after falling from a ladder. While waiting to have a CT scan, the client requests something for a severe headache. When the nurse offers a prescribed dose of acetaminophen, the client asks for something stronger. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication instead
- B. Explain the reason for using only non-narcotics
- C. Consult the healthcare provider about a stronger medication
- D. Administer a stronger medication as requested
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should explain the reason for using only non-narcotics. Following head trauma, non-narcotic medications such as acetaminophen are preferred to avoid masking symptoms of neurological changes, such as increased intracranial pressure, that could worsen after stronger pain medication. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it may not address the severity of the headache. Consulting the healthcare provider about a stronger medication (Choice C) is important, but the immediate need is to educate the client on the rationale for using non-narcotic medications first. Administering a stronger medication as requested (Choice D) could potentially mask important symptoms and should be avoided in this situation.
4. The nurse is providing care for a client with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Encourage the client to ambulate
- B. Apply a warm compress to the left leg
- C. Elevate the client's left leg
- D. Administer a prescribed anticoagulant
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the affected leg promotes venous return and reduces swelling, which is a priority intervention for a client with suspected DVT. This action helps prevent the thrombus from dislodging and causing further complications. Encouraging ambulation may dislodge the clot, leading to a pulmonary embolism. Applying a warm compress can increase blood flow to the area, potentially dislodging the clot. Administering anticoagulants is essential but should not be the first action as elevation helps to reduce the risk of complications associated with DVT.
5. The nurse has completed the diet teaching of a client who is being discharged following treatment of a leg wound. A high-protein diet is encouraged to promote wound healing. Which lunch choice by the client indicates that the teaching was effective?
- A. A tuna fish sandwich with chips and ice cream
- B. A vegetable salad with croutons and ranch dressing
- C. A grilled chicken breast with steamed vegetables
- D. A peanut butter and jelly sandwich with soda
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Grilled chicken is an excellent source of protein, which is important for wound healing. Choices A, B, and D are less ideal for wound healing. Choice A contains high-fat and high-sugar components like chips and ice cream, which may not support wound healing effectively. Choice B includes croutons and ranch dressing, which may not provide as much protein as needed for wound healing. Choice D with a peanut butter and jelly sandwich and soda lacks a balanced meal with adequate protein to promote wound healing.
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