Nursing Elites

1. Which structure maintains the uterus in an anteverted and anteflexed position?

• A. Round ligaments
• B. Broad ligaments
• C. Cardinal ligaments
• D. Pubocervical ligaments

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the Round ligaments. The round ligaments are responsible for maintaining the uterus in an anteverted and anteflexed position. These ligaments attach from the sides of the uterus and extend through the inguinal canal to the labia majora. The other choices, Broad ligaments, Cardinal ligaments, and Pubocervical ligaments, have different functions and attachments within the pelvis. Broad ligaments are a double layer of peritoneum that encloses the uterus and supports the uterine tubes. Cardinal ligaments provide support to the cervix and upper vagina. Pubocervical ligaments support the cervix and bladder.

2. Which component of reproductive health ensures the provision of quality reproductive health services at all levels of the health care system?

• A. Safe motherhood
• B. Adolescent health and development
• C. Health service delivery
• D. Reproductive health information

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Health service delivery is the component of reproductive health that specifically focuses on ensuring the provision of quality reproductive health services at all levels of the healthcare system. While safe motherhood and adolescent health are important aspects of reproductive health, they do not directly address the quality of health services delivery. Reproductive health information, although crucial, is not the component responsible for ensuring the quality of services provided.

3. Appropriate Technologies and Skills:

• A. Must be selected according to universal standards
• B. Involves ensuring the woman delivers at the hospital
• C. Requires specific qualifications such as being a nurse
• D. Necessitates the presence of a doctor at the service providing facility

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because appropriate technologies must adhere to universal standards to ensure their effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because the question is not specifically referring to childbirth. Choice C is incorrect as it limits the scope to only nurses. Choice D is incorrect as it implies the necessity of a doctor, which may not always be the case.

4. What is the estimated percentage of deaths due to unsafe abortions from 591 maternal deaths per 100,000 live births?

• A. 0.1
• B. 0.2
• C. 0.3
• D. 0.4

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the estimated percentage of deaths due to unsafe abortions, you divide the number of deaths due to unsafe abortions by the total number of maternal deaths and then multiply by 100 to get the percentage. In this case, with 591 maternal deaths and 40% estimated to be due to unsafe abortions, the calculation is (591 * 0.4) / 100, which equals 2.36. Therefore, the estimated percentage of deaths due to unsafe abortions from 591 maternal deaths per 100,000 live births is 0.4 or 40%. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect percentages that do not reflect the provided information.

5. In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test?

• A. Threatened
• B. Imminent
• C. Missed
• D. Incomplete

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test are characteristic of a missed abortion. In a missed abortion, the fetus has died, but the products of conception are retained in the uterus. This can lead to symptoms like dark brown vaginal discharge as the body tries to expel the nonviable pregnancy. A threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding without dilation of the cervix, and the pregnancy remains viable. Imminent abortion involves cervical dilation and effacement with no passage of tissue. In an incomplete abortion, only part of the products of conception are expelled, leading to persistent bleeding and cramping.

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