Nursing Elites

1. A client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax is complaining of increased shortness of breath. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Check for kinks in the chest tube tubing.
• B. Assess the client's lung sounds.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
• D. Prepare for chest tube replacement.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for a client with a chest tube experiencing increased shortness of breath is to elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees. This position promotes lung expansion, improves oxygenation, and can help relieve shortness of breath. Checking for kinks in the chest tube tubing would be important but not the first action in this situation. Assessing the client's lung sounds is also important but not the initial priority. Preparing for chest tube replacement is not indicated based solely on the client's complaint of increased shortness of breath.

2. After repositioning an immobile client, the nurse observes an area of hyperemia. What action should the nurse take to assess for blanching?

• A. Document the presence in the client’s record.
• B. Apply light pressure over the area.
• C. Apply heat to the area and reassess in 30 minutes.
• D. Apply cold compresses to reduce the redness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take to assess for blanching in an area of hyperemia is to apply light pressure over the area. Blanching is the temporary whitening of the skin when pressure is applied and then released, indicating that the blood flow is returning to the area. Applying light pressure helps in determining if the hyperemic area blanches, ensuring that blood flow is adequate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because documenting findings, applying heat, or using cold compresses are not appropriate actions for assessing blanching in an area of hyperemia.

3. A male client with cirrhosis has jaundice and pruritus. He tells the nurse that he has been soaking in hot baths at night with no relief of his discomfort. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Instruct the client to use a moisturizer immediately after the bath
• B. Advise the client to take shorter baths with less water
• C. Suggest taking antihistamines for the pruritus
• D. Encourage the client to use cooler water and apply calamine lotion after soaking

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this situation, the client's pruritus (itching) is likely exacerbated by hot baths, which can worsen the itching sensation. Using cooler water will help soothe the skin and reduce pruritus. Additionally, applying calamine lotion after soaking can provide further relief. Instructing the client to use a moisturizer immediately after the bath (Choice A) may not address the root cause of pruritus aggravated by hot baths. Advising the client to take shorter baths with less water (Choice B) might not be as effective in relieving the itching sensation caused by cirrhosis. Suggesting antihistamines for the pruritus (Choice C) may not directly address the impact of hot baths on the client's discomfort.

4. During an assessment of a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse is most likely to hear which of the following upon auscultation of the heart?

• A. S3 ventricular gallop
• B. Apical click
• C. Systolic murmur
• D. Split S2

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: An S3 ventricular gallop is an abnormal heart sound commonly heard in clients with congestive heart failure. This sound is indicative of fluid overload or volume expansion in the ventricles, which is often present in heart failure. <br> Incorrect Answers: <br> B: An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. <br> C: A systolic murmur may be heard in various cardiac conditions but is not specific to congestive heart failure. <br> D: A split S2 refers to a normal heart sound caused by the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves at slightly different times during inspiration, not directly related to congestive heart failure.

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse notes that the client's potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement
• B. Encourage the client to eat potassium-rich foods
• C. Hold the next dose of furosemide
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L is considered low, indicating hypokalemia. Administering a potassium supplement is the nurse's priority action to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels. Encouraging the client to eat potassium-rich foods is beneficial in the long term but may not rapidly correct the low potassium level. Holding the next dose of furosemide may worsen the client's heart failure symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake is not the priority action in this situation; addressing the low potassium level takes precedence to prevent potential serious complications.

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