ATI LPN
PN Nutrition Assessment ATI
1. The nutrients involved in metabolic regulation and control include minerals, vitamins, and:
- A. amino acids.
- B. carbohydrates.
- C. fats.
- D. water.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, water. Water plays a crucial role in metabolic regulation along with vitamins and minerals. While amino acids, carbohydrates, and fats are essential nutrients for various bodily functions, they are not primarily involved in metabolic regulation and control.
2. A client with iron-deficiency anemia is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should increase my intake of foods high in iron.
- B. I should decrease my intake of foods high in iron.
- C. I should increase my intake of foods high in calcium.
- D. I should decrease my intake of foods high in calcium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I should increase my intake of foods high in iron.' Iron-deficiency anemia is managed by increasing the consumption of iron-rich foods to improve iron levels in the body. Foods high in iron include red meat, poultry, fish, beans, lentils, and iron-fortified cereals. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreasing intake of iron-rich foods or increasing intake of calcium-rich foods would not address the deficiency in iron levels that characterizes iron-deficiency anemia.
3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?
- A. Allergy history
- B. Vital signs
- C. Renal function
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.
4. Cholecystokinin (CCK) is produced in the:
- A. duodenum.
- B. stomach.
- C. pancreas.
- D. liver.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cholecystokinin (CCK) is produced in the duodenum, not the stomach, pancreas, or liver. It is released in response to the presence of food in the duodenum, where it plays a crucial role in regulating digestive processes by stimulating the release of bile from the gallbladder and enzymes from the pancreas. Therefore, the correct answer is the duodenum (Choice A). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because CCK is not produced in the stomach, pancreas, or liver.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Increased urination
- B. Tremors
- C. Weight gain
- D. Blurred vision
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tremors are a concerning sign of lithium toxicity that indicate a potential overdose. Tremors can progress to more severe symptoms if not addressed promptly. Reporting tremors promptly allows the provider to assess the client's lithium levels, adjust the dosage, or provide appropriate interventions to prevent further complications. Increased urination, weight gain, and blurred vision are potential side effects of lithium but are not indicative of toxicity or overdose. While they should still be monitored, they are not as urgent as tremors in the context of lithium therapy.
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