Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who has a neurogenic bladder would be:

• A. Prednisone
• B. Sulfisoxazole
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with spina bifida, especially those with a neurogenic bladder, are at an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Sulfisoxazole, an antibiotic, is commonly prescribed prophylactically to prevent UTIs in this population. Prednisone (Choice A) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for prophylaxis in this scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) (Choice C) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and hypertension, not for preventing UTIs. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) (Choice D) is used to boost the immune system, not for UTI prophylaxis in this case.

2. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the medication teaching?

• A. I will avoid potassium-rich foods.
• B. I will not use a salt substitute.
• C. I will monitor my weight daily.
• D. I will increase my fluid intake as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is 'I will avoid potassium-rich foods.' Spironolactone (Aldactone) is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia if potassium intake is not regulated. Therefore, avoiding potassium-rich foods is crucial to prevent this complication. Using a salt substitute can also increase potassium levels. Monitoring weight daily is essential in heart failure management, but it is not specific to spironolactone. Increasing fluid intake as prescribed is generally recommended for heart failure management but is not directly related to spironolactone use.

3. Rifabutin (Mycobutin) is prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis. The nurse monitors for which side effects of the medication? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Signs of hepatitis
• B. Flu-like syndrome
• C. Low neutrophil count
• D. Vitamin B6 deficiency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Rifabutin is known to cause side effects such as hepatitis, flu-like syndrome, low neutrophil count, and ocular pain or blurred vision. Vitamin B6 deficiency is not associated with rifabutin but is a side effect of isoniazid (INH). Therefore, the nurse should not monitor for Vitamin B6 deficiency when administering rifabutin.

4. A client is receiving vancomycin (Vancocin). Which of the following is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Monitor the client for signs of nephrotoxicity.
• B. Monitor the client for signs of ototoxicity.
• C. Ensure adequate hydration.
• D. Administer the medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take when a client is receiving vancomycin is to monitor for signs of nephrotoxicity. Vancomycin can cause kidney damage, so monitoring kidney function and signs of nephrotoxicity are crucial to prevent harm. While monitoring for ototoxicity and ensuring adequate hydration are important nursing actions, they are not as critical as preventing nephrotoxicity when administering vancomycin.

5. A client is receiving desmopressin acetate (DDAVP), and a healthcare provider is monitoring for adverse effects. Which of the following indicates the presence of an adverse effect?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Weight loss
• D. Increased urination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Drowsiness can be a sign of water intoxication or hyponatremia, which are potential adverse effects of desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). It is crucial to monitor for this symptom and promptly address it to prevent complications.

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