Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who has a neurogenic bladder would be:

• A. Prednisone
• B. Sulfisoxazole
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with spina bifida, especially those with a neurogenic bladder, are at an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Sulfisoxazole, an antibiotic, is commonly prescribed prophylactically to prevent UTIs in this population. Prednisone (Choice A) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for prophylaxis in this scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) (Choice C) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and hypertension, not for preventing UTIs. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) (Choice D) is used to boost the immune system, not for UTI prophylaxis in this case.

2. A nurse is providing instructions to an adolescent who has a history of seizures and is taking an anticonvulsant medication. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the instructions?

• A. I will never be able to drive a car.
• B. My anticonvulsant medication will clear up my skin.
• C. I can't drink alcohol while I am taking my medication.
• D. If I forget my morning medication, I can take two pills at bedtime.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I can't drink alcohol while I am taking my medication.' Alcohol can lower the seizure threshold and should be avoided by individuals taking anticonvulsants. Choice A is incorrect because it is an extreme statement and not necessary for someone taking anticonvulsants. Choice B is incorrect as anticonvulsant medications are not used to clear skin conditions. Choice D is incorrect because doubling up medication doses can be harmful and should not be done without healthcare provider approval.

3. A client is receiving instructions from a healthcare provider about intranasal desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). The healthcare provider explains that which of the following is a side effect of the medication?

• A. Headache
• B. Vulval pain
• C. Runny nose
• D. Flushed skin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intranasal desmopressin can cause a runny or stuffy nose as a side effect due to its mode of administration through the nasal passages.

4. A client with severe acne is seen in the clinic, and the healthcare provider prescribes isotretinoin. The nurse reviews the client's medication record and would contact the healthcare provider if the client is taking which medication?

• A. Vitamin A
• B. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Phenytoin (Dilantin)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isotretinoin is a metabolite of vitamin A, which can lead to toxicity when taken together. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid concurrent use of vitamin A supplements with isotretinoin. Contacting the healthcare provider to discuss discontinuing vitamin A supplements is important to prevent potential adverse effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not known to interact significantly with isotretinoin.

5. The client with a gastric ulcer has a prescription for sucralfate (Carafate), 1 g by mouth four times daily. The nurse schedules the medication for which times?

• A. With meals and at bedtime
• B. Every 6 hours around the clock
• C. One hour after meals and at bedtime
• D. One hour before meals and at bedtime

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sucralfate is a gastric protectant that forms a protective coating over the ulcer. Administering sucralfate 1 hour before meals and at bedtime is important to create a barrier that protects the ulcer from gastric acid and mechanical irritation. This timing allows sucralfate to effectively coat the ulcer site and provide the desired therapeutic effect, enhancing its efficacy in promoting ulcer healing and symptom relief.

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