HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. The healthcare provider should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who has a neurogenic bladder would be:
- A. Prednisone
- B. Sulfisoxazole
- C. Furosemide (Lasix)
- D. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Children with spina bifida, especially those with a neurogenic bladder, are at an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Sulfisoxazole, an antibiotic, is commonly prescribed prophylactically to prevent UTIs in this population. Prednisone (Choice A) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for prophylaxis in this scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) (Choice C) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and hypertension, not for preventing UTIs. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) (Choice D) is used to boost the immune system, not for UTI prophylaxis in this case.
2. A client with portosystemic encephalopathy is receiving oral lactulose (Chronulac) daily. The nurse assesses which of the following to determine medication effectiveness?
- A. Lung sounds
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Blood ammonia level
- D. Serum potassium level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In portosystemic encephalopathy, the liver's ability to detoxify ammonia is impaired, leading to elevated blood ammonia levels, which can cause neurological symptoms such as encephalopathy. Lactulose is given to reduce ammonia levels by promoting its excretion through the bowel. Therefore, assessing the blood ammonia level is crucial to determine the effectiveness of lactulose therapy in managing portosystemic encephalopathy.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes mellitus was previously well controlled with daily glyburide (DiaBeta). However, the fasting blood glucose level has recently been in the range of 180 to 200 mg/dL. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?
- A. Prednisone
- B. Phenelzine (Nardil)
- C. Atenolol (Tenormin)
- D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prednisone is known to reduce the effectiveness of oral hypoglycemic medications like glyburide and insulin, which can result in hyperglycemia. Therefore, the addition of prednisone to the client's regimen could have contributed to the elevated fasting blood glucose levels observed.
4. A client who has been taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis asks the nurse about the medication. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I should limit my alcohol intake.
- B. I should notify my doctor if I notice a yellowish skin color.
- C. I should take the medication with an empty stomach.
- D. I should notify my doctor if I experience numbness and tingling in my extremities.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Isoniazid (INH) is best absorbed when taken on an empty stomach. However, if gastrointestinal upset occurs, it can be taken with food. Limiting alcohol intake, monitoring for jaundice, and notifying the doctor of peripheral neuropathy symptoms are all appropriate actions while taking INH.
5. Isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur) is prescribed for a client with angina pectoris. The client tells the nurse that the medication is causing a chronic headache. The nurse appropriately suggests that the client:
- A. Cut the dose in half.
- B. Discontinue the medication.
- C. Take the medication with food.
- D. Contact the healthcare provider (HCP).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Isosorbide mononitrate can cause headaches, which usually disappear during continued therapy. Taking the medication with food or meals can help alleviate the headache. It is important to recommend this approach before considering dose adjustments or discontinuation of the medication. Contacting the healthcare provider would be necessary if the headache persists despite taking the medication with food.
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