the nurse plans to screen only the highest risk children for scoliosis which group of children should the nurse screen first
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pediatrics Practice Exam

1. The healthcare provider plans to screen only the highest risk children for scoliosis. Which group of children should the healthcare provider screen first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: The healthcare provider plans to screen only the highest risk children for scoliosis. Which group of children should the healthcare provider screen first? Girls between ages 10 and 14 are at the highest risk for scoliosis and should be screened first as they have a higher incidence of developing scoliosis during their adolescent growth spurt. Early detection and intervention can help prevent further complications associated with scoliosis. Boys between ages 10 and 14 (choice B) are not at the highest risk compared to girls in the same age group. Boys and girls between 12 and 14 (choice C) are at a lower risk compared to girls between ages 10 and 14. Boys and girls between 8 and 12 (choice D) are at a lower risk group compared to girls between ages 10 and 14.

2. A 4-year-old child with a history of asthma is brought to the clinic with a complaint of cough and wheezing. The nurse notes that the child has been using a rescue inhaler more frequently over the past week. What should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the best course of action for the nurse is to review the child's asthma action plan. By doing so, the nurse can assess the current asthma management, ensure that the child is using the rescue inhaler correctly, and make any necessary adjustments to the treatment plan. Reviewing the asthma action plan helps in identifying triggers, proper use of medications, and when to seek medical help. Administering a dose of the rescue inhaler without assessing the current management plan may not address the underlying issue. Instructing the parents to increase the dose of the controller medication without proper evaluation can lead to inappropriate medication adjustments. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in one week is not the immediate action needed to address the child's current symptoms.

3. A 3-year-old with HIV infection is staying with a foster family who is caring for 3 other foster children in their home. When one of the children acquires pertussis, the foster mother calls the clinic and asks the nurse what she should do. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to review the immunization documentation of the child with HIV. This step ensures that the child has received the necessary vaccines to protect against pertussis and other preventable diseases. It is essential to verify the immunization status to provide appropriate care and prevent further transmission of infectious diseases within the foster home. Removing the child from the foster home (Choice A) may not be necessary if the child is adequately protected through immunization. Reporting the exposure to the health department (Choice B) is important but not the first action. Placing the child in reverse isolation (Choice C) is not indicated for pertussis exposure.

4. When observing a distraught mother scolding her 3-year-old son for wetting his pants in the hallway of a pediatric unit, what initial action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse's initial action should be to provide disposable training pants to manage the immediate issue of wetting while also calming the mother. This approach addresses the current distressing situation and offers a practical solution to alleviate the mother's concerns.

5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

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