HESI RN
HESI Pediatrics Practice Exam
1. The healthcare provider plans to screen only the highest risk children for scoliosis. Which group of children should the healthcare provider screen first?
- A. Girls between ages 10 and 14.
- B. Boys between ages 10 and 14.
- C. Boys and girls between 12 and 14.
- D. Boys and girls between 8 and 12.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: The healthcare provider plans to screen only the highest risk children for scoliosis. Which group of children should the healthcare provider screen first? Girls between ages 10 and 14 are at the highest risk for scoliosis and should be screened first as they have a higher incidence of developing scoliosis during their adolescent growth spurt. Early detection and intervention can help prevent further complications associated with scoliosis. Boys between ages 10 and 14 (choice B) are not at the highest risk compared to girls in the same age group. Boys and girls between 12 and 14 (choice C) are at a lower risk compared to girls between ages 10 and 14. Boys and girls between 8 and 12 (choice D) are at a lower risk group compared to girls between ages 10 and 14.
2. What is the priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup presenting with a barking cough and stridor?
- A. Administer a corticosteroid
- B. Obtain a throat culture
- C. Administer nebulized epinephrine
- D. Place the child in an upright position
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup and stridor is to administer nebulized epinephrine. Nebulized epinephrine helps reduce airway swelling, alleviate symptoms, and improve breathing by causing vasoconstriction and reducing upper airway edema. Administering a corticosteroid may be done but is not the priority in this scenario. Obtaining a throat culture is not necessary for the immediate management of croup. Placing the child in an upright position can aid in breathing but is not the priority action when the child is presenting with stridor.
3. When developing a behavior modification program for an extremely aggressive 10-year-old boy, what should the nurse do first?
- A. Identify what activities, foods, and toys the child enjoys
- B. Assess the child's previous reactions to punishment
- C. Offer the child positive feedback
- D. Involve other children on the unit in describing the token system
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The first step in developing a behavior modification program for an extremely aggressive 10-year-old boy is to identify what activities, foods, and toys the child enjoys. Understanding the child's motivations is crucial in creating an effective behavior modification plan tailored to his interests and preferences, which can help in positively reinforcing desired behaviors.
4. A mother brings her 3-month-old infant to the clinic because the baby does not sleep through the night. Which finding is most significant in planning care for this family?
- A. The mother is a single parent and lives with her parents
- B. The mother states the baby is irritable during feedings
- C. The infant's formula has been changed twice
- D. The diaper area shows severe skin breakdown
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Severe skin breakdown in the diaper area is significant as it indicates a potential severe issue that needs immediate attention to prevent further complications. Skin breakdown can lead to infections and discomfort for the infant, making it a priority in planning care for this family. The other findings, such as the mother's living situation, baby's irritability during feedings, or formula changes, are important but do not pose immediate risks to the infant's health compared to severe skin breakdown.
5. After reinforcing information on treating a sprained ankle, what statement by the adolescent indicates to the practical nurse that further instruction is needed?
- A. Keep the leg elevated when sitting.
- B. Wrap the ankle in an elastic bandage for support.
- C. Apply warm compresses to the ankle for the first 24 hours.
- D. Put an ice pack on the ankle, alternating 30 minutes on and 30 minutes off.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Applying warm compresses to a sprained ankle within the first 24 hours is incorrect as it can increase swelling and inflammation. Instead, cold compresses are recommended to help reduce swelling and pain. Option A, keeping the leg elevated, helps in reducing swelling. Option B, wrapping the ankle in an elastic bandage, provides support. Option D, using an ice pack in intervals, is effective in reducing swelling and pain. Therefore, the statement about applying warm compresses indicates the need for further instruction.
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