Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider plans to screen only the highest risk children for scoliosis. Which group of children should the healthcare provider screen first?

• A. Girls between ages 10 and 14.
• B. Boys between ages 10 and 14.
• C. Boys and girls between 12 and 14.
• D. Boys and girls between 8 and 12.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: The healthcare provider plans to screen only the highest risk children for scoliosis. Which group of children should the healthcare provider screen first? Girls between ages 10 and 14 are at the highest risk for scoliosis and should be screened first as they have a higher incidence of developing scoliosis during their adolescent growth spurt. Early detection and intervention can help prevent further complications associated with scoliosis. Boys between ages 10 and 14 (choice B) are not at the highest risk compared to girls in the same age group. Boys and girls between 12 and 14 (choice C) are at a lower risk compared to girls between ages 10 and 14. Boys and girls between 8 and 12 (choice D) are at a lower risk group compared to girls between ages 10 and 14.

2. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left to right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.

3. A 16-year-old male client who has been treated in the past for a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital. Immediately after admission, he begins to have a grand mal seizure. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain assistance in holding him to prevent injury.
• B. Observe him carefully.
• C. Call a CODE.
• D. Place a padded tongue blade between the teeth.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a grand mal seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to ensure the safety of the client. Observing the client carefully allows the nurse to monitor the seizure activity, the client's breathing, and any signs of distress without interfering with the seizure process. Restraining the client or placing objects in the mouth can lead to injury and should be avoided. Calling a CODE is not appropriate for a seizure as it is a normal response to the client's condition.

4. A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist albuterol (Proventil). The child’s mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son’s airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Recommend that the mother bring the child in for immediate evaluation
• B. Advise the mother that overuse of the drug may cause chronic bronchitis
• C. Assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly
• D. Confirm that the medication helps to reduce airway inflammation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly. Albuterol is a beta-adrenergic agonist that helps open the airways during an asthma attack. By reassuring the mother, the nurse reinforces the correct usage of the medication, which is crucial in managing the child's asthma symptoms effectively. Option A is incorrect because immediate evaluation may not be necessary if the child's symptoms are being managed effectively with albuterol. Option B is incorrect as chronic bronchitis is not typically associated with the overuse of albuterol. Option D is incorrect as albuterol primarily acts as a bronchodilator and does not directly reduce airway inflammation.

5. A 12-year-old male is brought to the clinic after falling during a skateboarding trick. The child's vital signs are heart rate 135 beats/minute, respirations 20 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 90/60. Which finding should the practical nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. The client complains of his back being sore.
• B. Capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.
• C. Blood pressure is 94/68.
• D. Peripheral pulses are weak and rapid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the 12-year-old male with a heart rate of 135 beats/minute, respirations of 20 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 90/60 after falling during a skateboarding trick exhibits signs of shock. Weak and rapid peripheral pulses are concerning as they may indicate decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion, which are signs of shock. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention to prevent potential complications. The other choices are less urgent. Complaints of back soreness (choice A) could be related to musculoskeletal injury. Capillary refill less than 2 seconds (choice B) is within the normal range, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. A blood pressure of 94/68 (choice C) is slightly higher than the initial reading and may be compensatory in response to the fall and shock state.

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