HESI RN
HESI Pediatrics Practice Exam
1. The healthcare provider plans to screen only the highest risk children for scoliosis. Which group of children should the healthcare provider screen first?
- A. Girls between ages 10 and 14.
- B. Boys between ages 10 and 14.
- C. Boys and girls between 12 and 14.
- D. Boys and girls between 8 and 12.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: The healthcare provider plans to screen only the highest risk children for scoliosis. Which group of children should the healthcare provider screen first? Girls between ages 10 and 14 are at the highest risk for scoliosis and should be screened first as they have a higher incidence of developing scoliosis during their adolescent growth spurt. Early detection and intervention can help prevent further complications associated with scoliosis. Boys between ages 10 and 14 (choice B) are not at the highest risk compared to girls in the same age group. Boys and girls between 12 and 14 (choice C) are at a lower risk compared to girls between ages 10 and 14. Boys and girls between 8 and 12 (choice D) are at a lower risk group compared to girls between ages 10 and 14.
2. The client has been diagnosed with primary aldosteronism. Which of the following clinical findings would the nurse expect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Primary aldosteronism involves the overproduction of aldosterone by the adrenal glands. Aldosterone increases potassium excretion, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, in primary aldosteronism, the nurse would expect to find hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia (choice A), hyponatremia (choice C), or hypercalcemia (choice D).
3. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the physician orders bed rest, a wet-to-dry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client?
- A. They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment.
- B. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.
- C. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention.
- D. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Wet-to-dry dressings are utilized in this case to debride the wound by removing dead tissue and promoting healing by secondary intention. Choice A is incorrect as wet-to-dry dressings do not provide a moist wound environment; instead, they promote drying to aid in debridement. Choice B is incorrect because their primary purpose is not to protect the wound but to remove dead tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the main function of wet-to-dry dressings is not to prevent the entrance of microorganisms or minimize wound discomfort.
4. A client who has had two episodes of bacterial cystitis in the last 6 months is being assessed by a nurse. Which questions should the nurse ask? (Select all that apply.)
- A. How much water do you drink every day?
- B. Do you take estrogen replacement therapy?
- C. Does anyone in your family have a history of cystitis?
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answers are all of the above (D). Asking about fluid intake (choice A) is important as it can affect the risk of cystitis. Estrogen levels (choice B) can also impact the likelihood of recurrent cystitis. Family history (choice C) is relevant as certain genetic factors can predispose individuals to cystitis. Cranberry juice, not grapefruit or orange juice, has been found to reduce the risk of bacterial cystitis by increasing the acidic pH. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are all pertinent questions to ask during the assessment of a client with recurrent bacterial cystitis.
5. The client is unable to void, and the plan of care sets an objective for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Which client response should the nurse document to indicate a successful outcome?
- A. Drinks adequate fluids.
- B. Void without difficulty.
- C. Feels less thirsty.
- D. Drinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Drinking 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift indicates a fluid intake of 1200 mL, which exceeds the minimum objective of at least 1000 mL. The client meeting or exceeding the fluid intake goal is a clear indicator of a successful outcome. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because simply drinking adequate fluids, voiding without difficulty, or feeling less thirsty do not directly demonstrate meeting the specific objective of fluid intake set in the care plan.