Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider plans to administer 10 mcg/kg of digoxin elixir as a loading dose to a child who weighs 55 pounds. Digoxin is available as an elixir of 50 mcg/ml. How many milliliters of the digoxin elixir should the healthcare provider administer to this child?

• A. 5 ml
• B. 10 ml
• C. 15 ml
• D. 20 ml

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dose, first, convert the child's weight to kilograms by dividing 55 pounds by 2.2, which equals approximately 25 kg. Then, multiply the weight by the dose (10 mcg/kg) to get the total dose needed, which is 250 mcg. Next, divide the total dose by the concentration of the elixir (50 mcg/ml) to determine the volume needed, which is 5 ml. Therefore, the correct dose is 5 ml based on the child's weight and the concentration of the elixir.

2. A child who weighs 25 kg is receiving IV ampicillin 300 mg/kg/24 hours in equally divided doses every 4 hours. How many milligrams should the nurse administer to the child for each dose?

• A. 1875 mg
• B. 625 mg
• C. 2000 mg
• D. 1500 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dose for each administration, multiply the child's weight (25 kg) by the dose (300 mg/kg/24 hours) and divide by the number of doses per day (6, as doses are every 4 hours). This gives us (25 kg * 300 mg/kg / 24 hours) / 6 doses = 1875 mg. Therefore, the nurse should administer 1875 mg for each dose. Choice B, 625 mg, is incorrect as it does not consider the correct calculation based on the weight and prescribed dose. Choice C, 2000 mg, is incorrect as it is not derived from the correct dosage calculation. Choice D, 1500 mg, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate dosage calculation based on the weight of the child and the prescribed dose.

3. A mother brings her 3-week-old infant to the clinic because the baby vomits after eating and always seems hungry. Further assessment indicates that the infant’s vomiting is projectile, and the child seems listless. Which additional assessment finding indicates the possibility of a life-threatening complication?

• A. Irregular palpable pulse
• B. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• C. Underweight for age
• D. Crying without tears

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the infant presenting with vomiting, lethargy, and projectile vomiting indicates a potential serious condition. Crying without tears is a sign of dehydration, a critical condition that can lead to life-threatening complications in infants. Dehydration can rapidly worsen an infant's condition, making prompt intervention crucial to prevent further complications. Irregular palpable pulse (Choice A) could indicate a cardiovascular issue but is less immediately life-threatening in this context. Hyperactive bowel sounds (Choice B) are more indicative of gastrointestinal issues rather than a life-threatening complication. Underweight for age (Choice C) may be concerning for growth-related issues but does not directly indicate a life-threatening complication like dehydration does.

4. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left to right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.

5. A 7-year-old child with a history of asthma presents to the clinic with shortness of breath and wheezing. The nurse notes that the child’s peak flow reading is in the red zone. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator
• B. Reassess the peak flow reading
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Provide oxygen therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a child with asthma presents with shortness of breath and wheezing, and the peak flow reading is in the red zone, indicating severe airflow limitation, the priority intervention is to administer a bronchodilator. Bronchodilators help dilate the airways quickly, improving airflow and assisting with breathing. Reassessing the peak flow reading is important but not the first action to take in a severe asthma exacerbation. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating immediate treatment with a bronchodilator. Providing oxygen therapy may be needed in some cases, but addressing the airway constriction with a bronchodilator should come first to improve ventilation.

Similar Questions