Nursing Elites

1. The client is being taught about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive. Which information should be provided?

• A. Two weeks before menstruation.
• B. Vaginal mucous discharge is thick.
• C. Low basal temperature.
• D. First thing in the morning.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two weeks before menstruation.' Ovulation typically occurs 14 days before menstruation begins during a typical 28-day cycle. To increase the chances of conception, sexual intercourse should occur within 24 hours of ovulation. High estrogen levels during ovulation lead to changes in vaginal mucous discharge, making it more 'slippery' and stretchy. Basal temperature rises during ovulation. The timing of intercourse during the day is less significant than ensuring it happens around ovulation. The other options are incorrect because planning intercourse two weeks before menstruation is likely to miss the fertile window, thick vaginal mucous discharge indicates ovulation is approaching, and low basal temperature is not indicative of the fertile period.

2. The provider has ordered Kayexalate and sorbitol to be administered to a patient. The nurse caring for this patient would expect which serum electrolyte values prior to administration of this therapy?

• A. Sodium 125 mEq/L and potassium 2.5 mEq/L
• B. Sodium 150 mEq/L and potassium 3.6 mEq/L
• C. Sodium 135 mEq/L and potassium 6.9 mEq/L
• D. Sodium 148 mEq/L and potassium 5.5 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe hyperkalemia, with a potassium level of 6.9 mEq/L, requires aggressive treatment with Kayexalate and sorbitol to increase the body’s excretion of potassium. The normal range for serum potassium is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L, so patients with the other potassium levels would not be treated aggressively or would need potassium supplementation. Therefore, option C (Sodium 135 mEq/L and potassium 6.9 mEq/L) is the correct choice as it indicates severe hyperkalemia warranting the administration of Kayexalate and sorbitol. Options A, B, and D have either potassium levels within normal limits, which would not necessitate this aggressive treatment, or potassium levels that are lower than what would typically prompt the need for Kayexalate and sorbitol.

3. A client recovering from extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy for renal calculi has an ecchymotic area on the right lower back. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer fresh-frozen plasma.
• B. Apply an ice pack to the site.
• C. Place the client in the prone position.
• D. Obtain serum coagulation test results.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy, ecchymosis can occur due to bleeding into the tissues from the shock waves. Applying an ice pack helps reduce the extent and discomfort of bruising. Administering fresh-frozen plasma and obtaining coagulation test results are not necessary as ecchymosis after this procedure is common and does not indicate a bleeding disorder that requires immediate intervention. Placing the client in the prone position will not address the bleeding or bruising in this situation.

4. When preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP), which action by the nurse is most important?

• A. Administering a sedative
• B. Encouraging fluid intake
• C. Administering an oral preparation of radiopaque dye
• D. Questioning the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse when preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP) is to question the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish. Some IVP dyes contain iodine, and if the client is allergic to iodine or shellfish, they may experience severe allergic reactions such as itching, hives, rash, throat tightness, difficulty breathing, or bronchospasm. Administering a sedative (Choice A) may be needed for relaxation during the procedure, encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) is generally beneficial but not the most crucial for IVP preparation, and administering radiopaque dye (Choice C) should only be done after confirming the client's safety regarding allergies to iodine or shellfish.

5. A patient presents with severe chest pain radiating to the left arm. Which of the following diagnostic tests is the priority?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Chest X-ray
• D. Serum electrolytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a patient presenting with severe chest pain radiating to the left arm, the priority diagnostic test is an Electrocardiogram (ECG) to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG can quickly identify changes indicative of ischemia or infarction, guiding prompt management. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) may provide some information but is not the primary test for evaluating chest pain related to myocardial infarction. A Chest X-ray can be useful in assessing lung pathologies or certain cardiac conditions; however, it does not provide immediate information on myocardial infarction, making it a secondary option in this scenario. Serum electrolytes may become important in later stages but do not offer immediate insights into myocardial infarction. Therefore, they are a lower priority compared to obtaining an ECG for timely diagnosis and intervention.

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