the nurse is teaching a female client about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive which information should the nurse provide
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HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. The client is being taught about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive. Which information should be provided?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two weeks before menstruation.' Ovulation typically occurs 14 days before menstruation begins during a typical 28-day cycle. To increase the chances of conception, sexual intercourse should occur within 24 hours of ovulation. High estrogen levels during ovulation lead to changes in vaginal mucous discharge, making it more 'slippery' and stretchy. Basal temperature rises during ovulation. The timing of intercourse during the day is less significant than ensuring it happens around ovulation. The other options are incorrect because planning intercourse two weeks before menstruation is likely to miss the fertile window, thick vaginal mucous discharge indicates ovulation is approaching, and low basal temperature is not indicative of the fertile period.

2. A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal clients leads to a decrease in the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells. This results in vaginal tissues becoming thinner, drier, and smoother, which reduces vaginal stretching and contributes to discomfort during intercourse. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for discomfort is not infrequent intercourse but rather physiological changes due to estrogen deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration may cause dryness but is not the primary reason for discomfort in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as lack of stimulation is not the most common reason for dyspareunia in postmenopausal clients; estrogen deficiency is the key factor.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing an older Caucasian male who has a history of peripheral vascular disease. The healthcare provider observes that the man's left great toe is black. The discoloration is probably a result of:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gangrene refers to dead, blackened tissue, often a result of chronic ischemia in clients with peripheral vascular disease. Atrophy (Choice A) is the wasting away or decrease in size of tissue or organ. Contraction (Choice B) refers to the shortening or tightening of a muscle or other body part. Rubor (Choice D) is a red discoloration of the skin, often associated with inflammation or poor circulation, but not typically presenting as blackening like gangrene.

4. The nurse is caring for several patients who are receiving antibiotics. Which order will the nurse question?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should question the order for Erythromycin 300 mg IM QID. Erythromycin and other macrolides should not be given intramuscularly because they cause painful tissue irritation. Options A and B are correct routes for Azithromycin, either intravenously or orally. Option D is a correct route for Erythromycin, which is orally.

5. A client has undergone renal angiography via the right femoral artery. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing a complication of the procedure upon noting:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pallor and coolness of the right leg indicate a potential vascular complication following renal angiography, such as hemorrhage, thrombosis, or embolism. These signs suggest impaired circulation in the affected limb. Urine output, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are not typically associated with complications of renal angiography. Complications of this procedure mainly involve allergic reactions to the dye, dye-induced renal damage, and various vascular issues.

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