the nurse is teaching a female client about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive which information should the nurse provide
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HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. The client is being taught about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive. Which information should be provided?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two weeks before menstruation.' Ovulation typically occurs 14 days before menstruation begins during a typical 28-day cycle. To increase the chances of conception, sexual intercourse should occur within 24 hours of ovulation. High estrogen levels during ovulation lead to changes in vaginal mucous discharge, making it more 'slippery' and stretchy. Basal temperature rises during ovulation. The timing of intercourse during the day is less significant than ensuring it happens around ovulation. The other options are incorrect because planning intercourse two weeks before menstruation is likely to miss the fertile window, thick vaginal mucous discharge indicates ovulation is approaching, and low basal temperature is not indicative of the fertile period.

2. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who is receiving prednisone 5 mg PO daily for a rash due to contact with poison ivy. Which symptoms should the nurse tell the client to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rapid weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which is a serious side effect of prednisone and should be reported.

3. A client who underwent lobectomy 24 hours ago has not had any chest tube drainage for the past hour. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a chest tube is not draining, the nurse's initial action should be to check for kinks or clots in the chest drainage system. This step helps to ensure the patency of the system and allows for proper drainage. Checking the client's blood pressure and heart rate is important but not the priority when addressing a lack of chest tube drainage. Contacting the physician is warranted if signs of respiratory distress or mediastinal shift are observed after ruling out kinks or clots. Connecting a new drainage system is done when the fluid chamber is full, following a specific procedure to maintain a closed system and prevent complications.

4. A male client comes into the emergency department with a serum creatinine of 2.2 mg/dL and a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 24 mg/dL. What question should the nurse ask first when taking this client’s history?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct question to ask the client first is about their recent intake of nephrotoxic medications like aspirin, ibuprofen, or naproxen. Elevated serum creatinine and BUN levels indicate possible renal issues, making it crucial to assess potential causes such as medication-induced nephrotoxicity. Inquiring about family history of renal failure or recent kidney transplants would not provide immediate insights into the client's current renal condition. While a diet low in protein could influence BUN levels, it is important to address medication history first due to the acute presentation in the emergency department.

5. A client is recovering from a closed percutaneous kidney biopsy and reports increased pain from 3 to 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An abrupt increase in pain following a percutaneous kidney biopsy may indicate internal hemorrhage. Assessing the client's pulse rate and blood pressure is crucial as changes in vital signs can be indicative of hemorrhage. This assessment is essential in determining the client's hemodynamic status and the need for immediate intervention. Repositioning the client, administering pain medication, or checking urine color are not the priority actions in this situation and may delay necessary interventions for potential hemorrhage.

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