Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left to right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.

2. A 10-year-old child with hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with joint pain and swelling. What should the healthcare provider do first?

• A. Apply ice to the affected joint
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Elevate the affected limb
• D. Administer factor VIII as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering factor VIII as prescribed is the priority intervention for a child with hemophilia experiencing joint pain and swelling. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs the blood's ability to clot properly, leading to prolonged bleeding. Factor VIII replacement therapy is essential as it helps restore the missing clotting factor in patients with hemophilia, thereby aiding in clot formation and preventing further bleeding. Applying ice, administering pain medication, or elevating the limb may be supportive measures but addressing the underlying cause by providing factor VIII therapy takes precedence in managing hemophilia-related joint pain and swelling.

3. A 3-year-old child with a high fever and sore throat is brought to the clinic. The nurse observes that the child is drooling and has difficulty swallowing. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer antipyretic medication
• B. Prepare for emergency airway management
• C. Offer the child ice chips to suck on
• D. Assess the child’s hydration status

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a 3-year-old child with drooling, difficulty swallowing, high fever, and sore throat, the nurse should prioritize preparing for emergency airway management. These signs may indicate epiglottitis, a condition that can quickly obstruct the airway, leading to respiratory distress and potentially fatal outcomes if not managed promptly. Administering antipyretic medication (Choice A) may be necessary later but is not the priority. Offering ice chips (Choice C) is contraindicated as the child has difficulty swallowing. Assessing hydration status (Choice D) is important but not the priority when the airway is at risk.

4. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. The nurse obtained an apical heart rate of 128 bpm, which is within the expected range for a 2-year-old child. Therefore, there is no immediate concern to withhold the scheduled dose of digoxin. Determining the pulse deficit is not necessary as the heart rate is appropriate. Calculating the safe dose range is not needed as the current dose is within the therapeutic range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level may be indicated later for monitoring but is not urgent based on the heart rate assessment. Administering the scheduled dose of digoxin is the correct action at this time.

5. An adolescent female who is leaning forward with her hands on her knees to breathe tells the practical nurse that she has been using triamcinolone (Azmacort) inhalation aerosol before coming to the clinic. Which action should the PN implement?

• A. Obtain vital signs and assess breath sounds for wheezing.
• B. Collect a blood sample for white blood cell count.
• C. Give the client a nebulizer breathing treatment.
• D. Administer another dose of Azmacort.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient presents with breathing difficulties, the first action should be to assess vital signs and breath sounds to evaluate the severity of the condition. This assessment will provide crucial information to determine the appropriate course of action and treatment. Collecting a blood sample for a white blood cell count, giving a nebulizer treatment, or administering another dose of Azmacort would not be the initial priority in this situation. Therefore, option A is the correct choice as it focuses on assessing the patient's respiratory status to guide further interventions.

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