Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient who has severe gastroenteritis. The patient’s electrolytes reveal a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L and a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The nurse receives an order for intravenous 5% dextrose and normal saline with 20 mEq/L potassium chloride to infuse at 125 mL per hour. Which action is necessary prior to administering this fluid?

• A. Evaluate the patient’s urine output.
• B. Contact the provider to order arterial blood gases.
• C. Request an order for an initial potassium bolus.
• D. Suggest a diet low in sodium and potassium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prior to administering IV fluids containing potassium, it is crucial to evaluate the patient's urine output. If the urine output is less than 25 mL/hr or 600 mL/day, there is a risk of potassium accumulation. Patients with low urine output should not receive IV potassium to prevent potential complications. Contacting the provider for arterial blood gases is unnecessary in this scenario as it does not directly relate to the administration of IV fluids with potassium. Administering potassium as a bolus is not recommended due to potential adverse effects. While dietary considerations are important, suggesting a low-sodium and low-potassium diet is not the immediate action required before administering IV fluids with potassium chloride.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately to the physician?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Clear dialysate inflow.
• C. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
• D. Increased blood pressure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow should be reported immediately to the physician as it is a concerning sign of peritonitis, a severe infection of the peritoneum. Peritonitis is a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires prompt medical intervention to prevent further complications. Clear dialysate outflow and inflow are normal findings in peritoneal dialysis and do not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Increased blood pressure, while important to monitor, is not directly related to peritoneal dialysis and would not be the priority over the potentially life-threatening complication of peritonitis.

3. A patient has been taking spironolactone (Aldactone) to treat heart failure. The nurse will monitor for

• A. hyperkalemia.
• B. hypermagnesemia.
• C. hypocalcemia.
• D. hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in heart failure management. One of the major side effects of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Monitoring for hyperkalemia is crucial as it can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypermagnesemia (choice B) is not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hypoglycemia (choice D) are also not directly linked to the use of spironolactone in heart failure treatment.

4. A client is hospitalized in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI) and is receiving tube feedings. The nurse is teaching the client’s spouse about the kidney-specific formulation for the enteral solution compared to standard formulas. What components should be discussed in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Lower sodium
• B. Lower potassium
• C. Higher phosphorus
• D. A & B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI), clients may require tube feedings with kidney-specific formulas. These formulations are lower in sodium and potassium, which are crucial considerations due to impaired kidney function. Higher phosphorus content is not a feature of kidney-specific formulations for AKI. Therefore, options A and B (lower sodium and lower potassium) should be discussed in the teaching plan. Option C, higher phosphorus, is incorrect as kidney-specific formulas are not intended to be higher in phosphorus content for AKI patients.

5. After educating a client with a history of renal calculi, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should drink at least 3 liters of fluid every day.
• B. I will eliminate all dairy or sources of calcium from my diet.
• C. Aspirin and aspirin-containing products can lead to stones.
• D. The doctor can give me antibiotics at the first sign of a stone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To prevent the formation of renal calculi, it is essential to maintain adequate hydration as dehydration can contribute to the precipitation of minerals leading to stone formation. Therefore, the correct statement indicating understanding of the teaching is choice A. Increasing fluid intake helps dilute urine and reduces the risk of stone formation. Eliminating all sources of calcium is not recommended as calcium is essential for various bodily functions and eliminating it can lead to other health issues. Aspirin and aspirin-containing products do not directly cause kidney stones. Antibiotics are not used to prevent or treat renal calculi, as they are not caused by bacterial infections.

Similar Questions