HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. The nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient who has severe gastroenteritis. The patient’s electrolytes reveal a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L and a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The nurse receives an order for intravenous 5% dextrose and normal saline with 20 mEq/L potassium chloride to infuse at 125 mL per hour. Which action is necessary prior to administering this fluid?
- A. Evaluate the patient’s urine output.
- B. Contact the provider to order arterial blood gases.
- C. Request an order for an initial potassium bolus.
- D. Suggest a diet low in sodium and potassium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prior to administering IV fluids containing potassium, it is crucial to evaluate the patient's urine output. If the urine output is less than 25 mL/hr or 600 mL/day, there is a risk of potassium accumulation. Patients with low urine output should not receive IV potassium to prevent potential complications. Contacting the provider for arterial blood gases is unnecessary in this scenario as it does not directly relate to the administration of IV fluids with potassium. Administering potassium as a bolus is not recommended due to potential adverse effects. While dietary considerations are important, suggesting a low-sodium and low-potassium diet is not the immediate action required before administering IV fluids with potassium chloride.
2. The client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left lower leg is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following assessments is the most important for the nurse to perform?
- A. Measure the circumference of the left leg.
- B. Assess for signs of bleeding, such as bruising or hematuria.
- C. Monitor the client's vital signs.
- D. Monitor the client's respiratory status.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important assessment for a client with DVT on heparin therapy is to monitor for signs of bleeding, such as bruising or hematuria. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Assessing for bleeding is crucial to prevent complications like hemorrhage. Measuring the circumference of the leg may be relevant for assessing for edema but is not as critical as monitoring for bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and respiratory status are important aspects of care but are not the priority when the client is on heparin therapy for DVT.
3. A female client is brought to the clinic by her daughter for a flu shot. She has lost significant weight since the last visit. She has poor personal hygiene and inadequate clothing for the weather. The client states that she lives alone and denies problems or concerns. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Notify social services immediately if suspected elderly abuse is present.
- B. Discuss the need for mental health counseling with the daughter.
- C. Explain to the client the importance of taking better care of herself.
- D. Collect further data to determine whether self-neglect is occurring.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client presents with significant weight loss, poor hygiene, and inadequate clothing, which are concerning signs of self-neglect. Before taking action, it is crucial for the nurse to collect more data to determine the root cause of these issues. Jumping to conclusions or immediately involving social services without a thorough assessment could potentially harm the client or strain relationships. Discussing the need for mental health counseling with the daughter or simply advising the client to take better care of herself may not address the underlying problem of self-neglect. Therefore, the most appropriate initial action is for the nurse to collect further data to make an informed decision before taking the next steps.
4. A patient has begun taking spironolactone (Aldactone) in addition to a thiazide diuretic. With the addition of the spironolactone, the nurse will counsel this patient to
- A. not take a potassium supplement daily.
- B. recognize that abdominal cramping is a common side effect.
- C. report decreased urine output to the provider.
- D. take these medications in the morning.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When combining a potassium-sparing diuretic like spironolactone with a thiazide diuretic, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia, especially in patients with poor renal function. Therefore, the patient should be educated to report any decrease in urine output, which could indicate a potential issue with kidney function. Choice A is incorrect because taking additional potassium supplements can further increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice B is incorrect as abdominal cramping is not a common side effect of spironolactone. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of medication administration is not directly related to the addition of spironolactone and thiazide diuretic; there is no specific recommendation to take these medications only at bedtime.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a 7-year-old patient who will receive oral antibiotics. Which antibiotic order will the healthcare provider question for this patient?
- A. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
- B. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
- C. Clindamycin (Cleocin)
- D. Tetracycline (Sumycin)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Tetracycline (Sumycin). Tetracyclines should not be given to children younger than 8 years of age because they irreversibly discolor the permanent teeth. Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, and Clindamycin are antibiotics that are generally safe for use in children and do not have the same tooth discoloration side effect as Tetracycline. Therefore, these antibiotics would be more appropriate choices for a 7-year-old patient.
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