Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has returned from surgery. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 92%.
• C. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).
• D. Pain at the surgical site.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 99°F (37.2°C) in a postoperative client requires immediate intervention as it may indicate the presence of infection. Elevated temperature post-surgery can be a sign of surgical site infection or systemic infection, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Monitoring and managing a fever in a postoperative client is crucial to prevent further complications. The other findings, such as a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, oxygen saturation of 92%, and pain at the surgical site, are common postoperative assessments that may not necessarily require immediate intervention unless they are significantly out of normal range or causing severe distress to the client.

2. The nurse is documenting the medical history of a young adult who was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day, and his father died of a heart attack at the age of 45. Which annual screening is most important for the nurse to include?

• A. peripheral neuropathy
• B. renal insufficiency
• C. retinopathy
• D. hyperlipidemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important annual screening for the nurse to include is hyperlipidemia. Given the client's smoking history, family history of premature heart disease, and the increased risk of cardiovascular complications associated with diabetes, screening for hyperlipidemia is crucial. This screening is essential in assessing the client's risk of developing cardiovascular disease, which is a significant concern in this case. Peripheral neuropathy (choice A) is a common long-term complication of diabetes but may not be the most immediate concern in this scenario. Renal insufficiency (choice B) is also a complication of diabetes, but given the client's high cardiovascular risk, hyperlipidemia screening takes priority. Retinopathy (choice C) is an important complication of diabetes affecting the eyes, but in this case, focusing on cardiovascular risk assessment through hyperlipidemia screening is more critical.

3. The healthcare professional is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Wear the brace over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day.
• B. Remove the brace while sleeping.
• C. Wear the brace directly against the skin.
• D. Remove the brace while eating.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Milwaukee brace should be worn over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day to reduce friction and chafing of the skin. This ensures that the brace is not directly against the skin, which can cause discomfort and skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect because the brace should typically be worn continuously, even while sleeping, unless otherwise instructed by a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as wearing the brace directly against the skin can lead to skin issues. Choice D is incorrect since the brace should not be removed while eating to maintain the prescribed wear time.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube to continuous suction. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypercalcemia.
• B. Hypokalemia.
• C. Hyponatremia.
• D. Hypomagnesemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. When a client has a nasogastric tube to continuous suction, potassium loss through gastric fluids can lead to hypokalemia. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with continuous suction. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves sodium imbalance and is not directly related to nasogastric suction. Hypomagnesemia (Choice D) is not the primary concern in this situation, as potassium loss is more significant with gastric suction.

5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute
• D. Productive cough with green sputum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with COPD admitted with pneumonia, a productive cough with green sputum indicates a potential bacterial infection. Green sputum is commonly associated with bacterial pneumonia, which requires immediate intervention with appropriate antibiotics. Monitoring oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, and heart rate are essential in COPD patients, but the presence of green sputum suggests an urgent need for targeted treatment to address the underlying infection. Oxygen saturation of 88% is concerning but may not directly indicate the need for immediate intervention in the absence of other critical symptoms. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 90 beats per minute are within normal limits and may not be indicative of an acute issue requiring immediate intervention in this context.

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