Nursing Elites

1. In the newborn nursery, the nurse admits a baby from labor and delivery who is suspected of having a congenital heart disease. Which finding helps to confirm this diagnosis?

• A. Pink lips and tongue with cyanotic hands and feet
• B. Respiration rate of 40 and heart rate of 144
• C. Centralized cyanosis and tachycardia when crying
• D. Desquamation from areas of cracked, parchment-like skin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Centralized cyanosis and tachycardia are classic signs of congenital heart disease. Choice A is incorrect because cyanosis in the hands and feet is not specific to congenital heart disease. Choice B is incorrect as the vital signs provided are not specific indicators of congenital heart disease. Choice D is unrelated to the typical signs of congenital heart disease.

2. A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency center with dysphagia, drooling, a fever of 102°F, and stridor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the child in a mist tent
• B. Obtain a sputum culture
• C. Prepare for an emergent tracheostomy
• D. Examine the child's oropharynx and report the findings to the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 3-year-old boy presenting with dysphagia, drooling, fever, and stridor, the priority intervention should be to place the child in a mist tent. This intervention helps alleviate respiratory distress, providing immediate relief. Options B, C, and D are not as urgent as ensuring the child's airway is managed effectively. Obtaining a sputum culture, preparing for a tracheostomy, and examining the oropharynx can be done after stabilizing the child's respiratory status.

3. The nurse in a community health clinic is interviewing a female client who has three children. The client tells the nurse that she has a new man in her life, with whom she is having a sexual relationship, and that they both smoke cigarettes. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide this client?

• A. Oral contraceptives should be started to prevent an unwanted pregnancy
• B. Children are more prone to upper respiratory infections if exposed to smoke at home
• C. Cigarette smoking increases the risk for peptic ulcers and emphysema
• D. A diaphragm and condom provide effective contraception when used together

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to provide the client in this situation is that using both a diaphragm and a condom together provides effective contraception and also protects against sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). While oral contraceptives can help prevent unwanted pregnancies, using a barrier method like a diaphragm and a condom is crucial in this scenario where the client is engaging in a new sexual relationship. Choice B is important information but is not the top priority in this context. Choice C, although relevant, does not address the immediate concern of contraception and STD prevention. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

4. A male client admitted three days ago with respiratory failure is intubated, and 40% oxygen per facemask is initiated. Currently, his temperature is 99°F, capillary refill is less than 4 seconds, and respiratory effort is within normal limits. What outcome should the nurse evaluate to measure for successful extubation?

• A. Exhibits adequate tissue perfusion
• B. Remains free of injury
• C. Remains free of infection
• D. Maintains effective breathing pattern

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Successful extubation relies on the patient's ability to maintain an effective breathing pattern. This indicates that the patient can adequately oxygenate and ventilate without the need for mechanical support. Monitoring tissue perfusion, preventing infection, and ensuring safety are important but not directly related to the immediate criteria for successful extubation. Tissue perfusion, injury prevention, and infection control are crucial aspects of overall patient care but are not the primary factors to consider when evaluating readiness for extubation.

5. A client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF) has a 24-hour urine output of 400 ml. How much oral intake should the nurse allow this client to have during the next 24 hours?

• A. Encourage oral fluids as tolerated
• B. Decrease oral intake to 200 ml
• C. Allow the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake
• D. Limit oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), the goal is to prevent fluid overload. Since the client has a low urine output of 400 ml in 24 hours, limiting oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml is appropriate. Encouraging unrestricted oral fluids (Choice A) can exacerbate fluid overload. Decreasing oral intake to 200 ml (Choice B) would be too restrictive and may lead to dehydration. Allowing the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake (Choice C) would not account for other sources of fluid intake and output, potentially resulting in fluid imbalance.

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