Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute.
• B. Nausea and vomiting.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Shortness of breath.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Nausea and vomiting are common signs of digoxin toxicity, which can lead to serious complications like dysrhythmias. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent further harm to the client. Choice A, a heart rate of 58 beats per minute, although slightly lower than normal, may be appropriate for a client on digoxin. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is within normal limits and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Choice D, shortness of breath, is a common symptom in heart failure and requires monitoring but is not as indicative of digoxin toxicity as nausea and vomiting.

2. What is the primary action of digoxin when prescribed to a patient with heart failure?

• A. Increase heart rate
• B. Decrease cardiac output
• C. Strengthen cardiac contractions
• D. Lower blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Digoxin, when prescribed to a patient with heart failure, primarily acts by strengthening cardiac contractions. This leads to an improvement in cardiac output, making it an essential medication in managing heart failure. By enhancing the force of contractions, digoxin helps the heart pump more effectively and efficiently, leading to better circulation and symptom control in patients with compromised cardiac function.

3. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client with cholecystitis. Which type of diet should the healthcare provider recommend?

• A. High-fiber, low-fat diet
• B. Low-fiber, high-protein diet
• C. Low-fat, low-cholesterol diet
• D. High-protein, high-fat diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cholecystitis, a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet is recommended to manage symptoms and reduce inflammation by reducing the workload on the gallbladder. This diet helps prevent gallbladder attacks and complications.

4. The nurse is providing an educational workshop about coronary artery disease (CAD) and its risk factors. The nurse explains to participants that CAD has many risk factors, some that can be controlled and some that cannot. What risk factors should the nurse list that can be controlled or modified?

• A. Gender, obesity, family history, and smoking
• B. Inactivity, stress, gender, and smoking
• C. Cholesterol levels, hypertension, and smoking
• D. Stress, family history, and obesity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cholesterol levels, hypertension, and smoking are controllable risk factors for CAD. Managing these factors through lifestyle changes and medical interventions can help reduce the risk of developing coronary artery disease.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which pre-procedure instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Maintain a low-protein diet for 24 hours before the biopsy.
• B. Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy.
• C. Drink plenty of fluids before the procedure.
• D. Take your routine medications with a full glass of water before the biopsy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct pre-procedure instruction the nurse should provide to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for a renal biopsy is to avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy. This instruction is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding during the procedure, as anticoagulants can increase the chance of bleeding complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because maintaining a low-protein diet, drinking plenty of fluids, or taking routine medications with water are not specifically related to reducing the risk of bleeding associated with a renal biopsy in a client with CKD.

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