Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute.
• B. Nausea and vomiting.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Shortness of breath.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Nausea and vomiting are common signs of digoxin toxicity, which can lead to serious complications like dysrhythmias. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent further harm to the client. Choice A, a heart rate of 58 beats per minute, although slightly lower than normal, may be appropriate for a client on digoxin. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is within normal limits and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Choice D, shortness of breath, is a common symptom in heart failure and requires monitoring but is not as indicative of digoxin toxicity as nausea and vomiting.

2. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder refuses to get out of bed, eat, or participate in group therapy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Offer the client high-calorie snacks and frequent small meals.
• B. Ask the client why they are not participating in therapy.
• C. Sit with the client and offer support without demanding participation.
• D. Encourage the client to discuss their feelings of hopelessness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of major depressive disorder where the client is non-participatory and withdrawn, sitting with the client and providing support without pressuring them to engage in activities like eating or therapy is crucial. This approach respects the client's current state, builds trust, and creates a supportive environment that can eventually lead to the client opening up and accepting help.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the client is at risk for infection?

• A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL.
• B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3.
• C. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm3.
• D. Serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A white blood cell count of 2,000/mm3 is low and indicates leukopenia, which increases the client's risk for infection. Hemoglobin level and platelet count are not directly indicative of infection risk. Serum creatinine level is related to kidney function, not infection risk.

4. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of a 60-year-old man with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria strongly suggests type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes typically presents with acute symptoms due to absolute insulin deficiency, leading to hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Conversely, type 2 diabetes often presents more insidiously and is associated with relative insulin deficiency and insulin resistance. Diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, is due to problems with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism, while also presenting with symptoms like fatigue, does not typically manifest with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most likely diagnosis in this case is type 1 diabetes mellitus.

5. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
• B. Serosanguineous drainage in the collection chamber.
• C. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• D. Chest tube secured to the client's chest wall.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak, which requires immediate intervention to prevent complications such as pneumothorax. An air leak can lead to ineffective lung expansion, respiratory distress, and compromised gas exchange. Therefore, prompt action is necessary to maintain the integrity of the closed drainage system and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serosanguineous drainage is an expected finding post-thoracotomy, intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is normal, and having the chest tube secured to the client's chest wall is essential for stability and proper functioning.

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