Nursing Elites

1. A male client is admitted to the neurological unit. He has just sustained a C-5 spinal cord injury. Which assessment finding of this client warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Is unable to feel sensation in the arms and hands.
• B. Has flaccid upper and lower extremities.
• C. Blood pressure is 110/70 and the apical pulse is 68.
• D. Respirations are shallow, labored, and 14 breaths/minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Respirations that are shallow, labored, and at 14 breaths/minute indicate potential respiratory compromise, which is a critical situation requiring immediate intervention to maintain adequate oxygenation and prevent respiratory failure.

2. A 35-year-old male patient presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever for the past 48 hours, preceded by new onset jaundice over the past few weeks. He states that he has had diarrhea on and off for several years but never had this investigated. A liver ultrasound is negative for gallstones or evidence of cholecystitis. His lab tests reveal total bilirubin 6.2, alkaline phosphatase 450, AST 150, ALT 120, albumin 2.6. The next diagnostic test of choice would be

• A. Liver biopsy
• B. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
• C. Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis C RNA assay
• D. Colonoscopy with biopsies

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with abnormal liver function tests, suggests a biliary tract problem. Given the suspicion of obstructed bile flow and the negative liver ultrasound for gallstones, magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) is the next appropriate step to evaluate the biliary system and pancreatic ducts. MRCP is non-invasive and can provide detailed images for diagnosis. Liver biopsy is not the preferred initial diagnostic test in this context. Testing for hepatitis B and C would not address the current clinical scenario, and colonoscopy is not indicated for the presenting symptoms.

3. A 46-year-old man with a history of cirrhosis is brought in by his wife because he has been acting strangely. On examination, he is disoriented, ataxic, and has slurred speech. He is also hyperreflexic. His white blood cell count is normal. His hematocrit is 34%. Coagulation times are elevated. His ammonia level is normal. Which of the following statements regarding his management is correct?

• A. He should be treated with a low-protein diet and lactulose
• B. Lorazepam is not the drug of choice to control his behavior
• C. He should not be placed on gentamicin prophylactically to prevent the development of peritonitis
• D. If the patient complains of pain, acetaminophen should be avoided and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents should be used

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This patient presents with symptoms consistent with hepatic encephalopathy. Despite having a normal ammonia level, he should be treated with lactulose and a low-protein diet as recommended for stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. The normal ammonia level does not exclude the diagnosis, as it lacks sensitivity and specificity. Medications like lorazepam, gentamicin, and NSAIDs should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects in patients with liver disease. Acetaminophen should also be avoided in such patients.

4. A patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. Increase intake of dairy products.
• C. Limit intake of citrus fruits.
• D. Avoid high-sodium foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients on warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K because vitamin K can interfere with the anticoagulant effect of the medication. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, so consuming large amounts of vitamin K-rich foods may decrease the effectiveness of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of dairy products, limiting citrus fruits, or avoiding high-sodium foods are not directly related to the mechanism of action of warfarin or its dietary considerations.

5. What is/are the possible cause(s) of acute pancreatitis in this patient?

• A. HIV
• B. Cytomegalovirus
• C. Dideoxyinosine (ddI)
• D. Pentamidine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: This patient presents with symptoms and lab findings consistent with acute pancreatitis. Cytomegalovirus is a common viral infection associated with pancreatitis. In patients with AIDS, the pancreas can be affected by various infections (e.g., cryptococcus, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, candida, Toxoplasma gondii) and medications (such as ddI, pentamidine, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, metronidazole) can also lead to acute pancreatitis. While HIV infection predisposes individuals to various opportunistic infections, in this case, the most likely cause of the acute pancreatitis is cytomegalovirus infection.

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