ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing respiratory distress. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
- B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing.
- C. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.
- D. Obtain a stat arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with COPD experiencing respiratory distress, the priority intervention should be to position the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and reduce the work of breathing. Administering bronchodilators and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions but positioning the client to enhance respiratory function takes precedence in this situation. Obtaining an ABG sample may provide valuable information but is not the initial priority when addressing respiratory distress.
2. The client with bacterial pneumonia is receiving intravenous antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?
- A. Increased respiratory rate.
- B. Decreased oxygen saturation.
- C. Clear lung sounds.
- D. Elevated white blood cell count.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clear lung sounds indicate that the antibiotics are effectively treating the bacterial pneumonia by resolving the infection and reducing the inflammation in the lungs, leading to improved air exchange and ventilation. Increased respiratory rate (Choice A) and decreased oxygen saturation (Choice B) are indicative of ongoing respiratory distress and ineffective treatment. Elevated white blood cell count (Choice D) suggests a persistent infection rather than effective treatment.
3. A 55-year-old man presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The constellation of symptoms including fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct, are classical features of primary biliary cirrhosis.
4. For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing montelukast?
- A. Relieve acute bronchospasm
- B. Prevent asthma attacks
- C. Thin respiratory secretions
- D. Suppress cough
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Montelukast, a leukotriene receptor antagonist, is primarily prescribed to prevent asthma attacks. It works by reducing inflammation and bronchoconstriction in the airways, thereby helping to control asthma symptoms and prevent exacerbations.
5. A client with liver failure is at an increased risk of bleeding due to the inability to synthesize prothrombin in the liver. What factor most likely contributes to this loss of function?
- A. Alterations in glucose metabolism
- B. Retention of bile salts
- C. Inadequate production of albumin by hepatocytes
- D. Inability of the liver to use vitamin K
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The liver's inability to use vitamin K is the most likely factor contributing to the loss of prothrombin synthesis in liver failure. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of prothrombin, a crucial clotting factor. In liver failure, impaired utilization of vitamin K leads to decreased production of prothrombin, increasing the risk of bleeding in affected individuals.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access