Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing respiratory distress. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
• B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing.
• C. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.
• D. Obtain a stat arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD experiencing respiratory distress, the priority intervention should be to position the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and reduce the work of breathing. Administering bronchodilators and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions but positioning the client to enhance respiratory function takes precedence in this situation. Obtaining an ABG sample may provide valuable information but is not the initial priority when addressing respiratory distress.

2. A client with a history of asthma is prescribed salmeterol (Serevent). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Use this medication for acute asthma attacks.
• B. Use this medication before using your albuterol inhaler.
• C. Use this medication twice daily for long-term control.
• D. Use this medication as needed for wheezing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed salmeterol (Serevent) is to use it twice daily for long-term control. Salmeterol is a long-acting bronchodilator that is not intended for acute asthma attacks or as-needed use for wheezing. Choice A is incorrect because salmeterol is not used for acute asthma attacks. Choice B is incorrect as salmeterol is not meant to replace the albuterol inhaler but rather used for long-term control. Choice D is incorrect because salmeterol should not be used as needed; it is a maintenance medication for asthma.

3. A 50-year-old man presents with progressive jaundice, dark urine, and pruritus. Imaging reveals a mass in the head of the pancreas. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Pancreatic cancer
• B. Chronic pancreatitis
• C. Gallstones
• D. Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of progressive jaundice, dark urine, and pruritus along with a pancreatic mass, particularly in the head of the pancreas, strongly suggests pancreatic cancer as the most likely diagnosis. These symptoms are classic for obstructive jaundice caused by a mass in the head of the pancreas, making pancreatic cancer the most fitting choice.

4. When covering another nurse's assignment during a lunch break, based on the status report provided, which client should the charge nurse check first?

• A. The client admitted yesterday with diabetic ketoacidosis whose blood glucose level is now 195 mg/dl.
• B. The client with an ileal conduit created two days ago with a scant amount of blood in the drainage pouch.
• C. The client post-triple coronary bypass four days ago who has serosanguinous drainage in the chest tube.
• D. The client with a pneumothorax secondary to a gunshot wound with a current pulse oximeter reading of 90%.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client with a pneumothorax and a pulse oximeter reading of 90% indicates potential respiratory compromise, requiring immediate attention to prevent further deterioration.

5. When creating a care plan for a 70-year-old obese client admitted to the postsurgical unit following a colon resection, the client's age and increased body mass index put them at increased risk for which complication in the postoperative period?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Azotemia
• C. Falls
• D. Infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infection is a significant risk in obese, elderly clients due to decreased immunity and increased healing time, making them more susceptible to postoperative infections. Proper infection prevention measures should be a priority in the care plan for this client to minimize this risk.

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