Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing respiratory distress. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
• B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing.
• C. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.
• D. Obtain a stat arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD experiencing respiratory distress, the priority intervention should be to position the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and reduce the work of breathing. Administering bronchodilators and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions but positioning the client to enhance respiratory function takes precedence in this situation. Obtaining an ABG sample may provide valuable information but is not the initial priority when addressing respiratory distress.

2. When should surgical correction of hypospadias typically occur for a newborn infant as advised by the nurse?

• A. Repair should be done within one month to prevent bladder infections.
• B. Repairs should typically be done before the child is potty-trained.
• C. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.
• D. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Surgical repair of hypospadias is recommended to be performed before the child is potty-trained to prevent complications. Early correction helps in achieving better outcomes and reduces the risk of issues related to urination and development of the genitalia.

3. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Weight loss
• C. Hyperactivity
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperglycemia. Risperidone (Risperdal) can lead to metabolic side effects, such as hyperglycemia, which requires monitoring. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because risperidone is not typically associated with hypertension. Choice B, Weight loss, is less common with risperidone use as it can lead to weight gain. Choice C, Hyperactivity, is not a common side effect of risperidone; instead, it is more known for sedative effects.

4. The client has acute kidney injury (AKI). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Urine output of 50 ml in the last hour.
• B. Serum potassium of 6.2 mEq/L.
• C. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L in a client with AKI can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias, necessitating immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia is a serious complication in AKI as impaired kidney function can result in the accumulation of potassium in the blood, posing a risk of cardiac arrest. Prompt treatment to lower potassium levels is crucial to prevent cardiac complications in this situation.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this condition?

• A. Administer calcium gluconate.
• B. Encourage a diet high in potassium.
• C. Provide potassium supplements.
• D. Restrict sodium intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering calcium gluconate is the appropriate intervention for a client with hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate helps stabilize the heart by counteracting the effects of high potassium levels and reducing the risk of cardiac complications in individuals with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Encouraging a diet high in potassium or providing potassium supplements would exacerbate hyperkalemia. Restricting sodium intake is not directly related to addressing hyperkalemia.

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