ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding should the provider expect?
- A. Increased anteroposterior chest diameter.
- B. Decreased respiratory rate.
- C. Dull percussion sounds over the lungs.
- D. Hyperresonance on chest percussion.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased anteroposterior chest diameter. The increased anteroposterior chest diameter, often referred to as a barrel chest, is a common finding in clients with COPD due to hyperinflation of the lungs. This occurs because of the loss of lung elasticity and air trapping, leading to a more rounded chest shape. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased respiratory rate is not typically associated with COPD; instead, an increased respiratory rate may be seen due to the body's compensatory mechanisms. Dull percussion sounds and hyperresonance on chest percussion are not characteristic findings in COPD. Dull percussion sounds may be indicative of consolidation or pleural effusion, while hyperresonance is more commonly associated with conditions like emphysema.
2. A client has developed hepatic encephalopathy secondary to cirrhosis and is receiving care on the medical unit. The client's current medication regimen includes lactulose four times daily. What desired outcome should the nurse relate to this pharmacologic intervention?
- A. Two to three soft bowel movements daily
- B. Significant increase in appetite and food intake
- C. Absence of nausea and vomiting
- D. Absence of blood or mucus in stool
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lactulose is used in hepatic encephalopathy to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting bowel movements. The desired outcome of lactulose therapy is typically two to three soft bowel movements daily, which helps in eliminating excess ammonia from the body, thus improving the client's condition.
3. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What advice should the nurse give regarding insulin administration?
- A. Skip your insulin dose until you can eat.
- B. Take your insulin as prescribed, but monitor your blood glucose closely.
- C. Reduce your insulin dose by half.
- D. Only take your long-acting insulin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct advice for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing nausea and vomiting is to take insulin as prescribed but monitor blood glucose closely. It is essential to continue insulin therapy even if not eating normally to prevent complications from high blood sugar levels. Skipping insulin doses can lead to dangerous fluctuations in blood glucose levels. Reducing the insulin dose without proper guidance can also result in uncontrolled blood sugar. Taking only long-acting insulin may not provide adequate coverage for mealtime blood sugar elevation. Therefore, the best course of action is to take prescribed insulin doses while closely monitoring blood glucose levels.
4. A 70-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. He has a history of atrial fibrillation. Physical examination reveals a soft abdomen with minimal tenderness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Acute pancreatitis
- B. Mesenteric ischemia
- C. Peptic ulcer disease
- D. Diverticulitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The sudden onset of severe abdominal pain in a patient with atrial fibrillation, along with a soft abdomen and minimal tenderness on examination, suggest mesenteric ischemia due to embolic occlusion of the mesenteric arteries. This condition is characterized by a sudden and severe decrease in blood flow to the intestines, leading to abdominal pain and tenderness. Acute pancreatitis typically presents with epigastric pain that may radiate to the back, accompanied by elevated serum amylase and lipase levels. Peptic ulcer disease and diverticulitis usually do not manifest with the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain as described in the case.
5. A 55-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice in a 55-year-old woman, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct, are characteristic of primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary biliary cirrhosis is an autoimmune liver disease that typically affects middle-aged women, leading to progressive destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts.
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