ATI LPN
ATI Adult Medical Surgical
1. When should surgical correction of hypospadias typically occur for a newborn infant as advised by the nurse?
- A. Repair should be done within one month to prevent bladder infections.
- B. Repairs should typically be done before the child is potty-trained.
- C. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.
- D. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Surgical repair of hypospadias is recommended to be performed before the child is potty-trained to prevent complications. Early correction helps in achieving better outcomes and reduces the risk of issues related to urination and development of the genitalia.
2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- B. Drainage of 75 ml in the first hour post-insertion.
- C. Crepitus around the insertion site.
- D. Fluctuation of the water level in the water seal chamber with respiration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Crepitus (subcutaneous emphysema) around the insertion site can indicate air leakage, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as pneumothorax. This assessment finding suggests that there may be a break in the chest tube system, leading to air entering the pleural space. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory compromise and further complications.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving prednisone (Deltasone). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Infection
- C. Hypotension
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Infection. Prednisone is an immunosuppressant medication commonly used in COPD to reduce inflammation. Due to its immunosuppressive effects, clients are at an increased risk of developing infections. Therefore, nurses should closely monitor clients receiving prednisone for signs and symptoms of infections to provide timely interventions.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?
- A. Use this medication only during acute exacerbations.
- B. Rinse your mouth after using the inhaler.
- C. Take this medication with food.
- D. Increase your fluid intake to at least 3 liters per day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching for a client prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva) is to rinse the mouth after using the inhaler. Rinsing the mouth helps prevent oral thrush, a common side effect of inhaled medications. This action reduces the risk of developing oral fungal infections, promoting better oral health for the client.
5. A client with liver failure is at an increased risk of bleeding due to the inability to synthesize prothrombin in the liver. What factor most likely contributes to this loss of function?
- A. Alterations in glucose metabolism
- B. Retention of bile salts
- C. Inadequate production of albumin by hepatocytes
- D. Inability of the liver to use vitamin K
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The liver's inability to use vitamin K is the most likely factor contributing to the loss of prothrombin synthesis in liver failure. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of prothrombin, a crucial clotting factor. In liver failure, impaired utilization of vitamin K leads to decreased production of prothrombin, increasing the risk of bleeding in affected individuals.
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