HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Quizlet
1. What is the main purpose of the working phase of the nurse-patient relationship?
- A. Establish a formal or informal contract that addresses the patient's problems.
- B. Implement nursing interventions that are designed to achieve expected patient outcomes.
- C. Develop rapport and trust so the patient feels supported, and the initial plan can be identified.
- D. Clearly identify the role of the nurse and establish the parameters of the professional relationship.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The main purpose of the working phase in the nurse-patient relationship is to implement nursing interventions that are specifically tailored to achieve the expected patient outcomes. During this phase, the nurse actively works with the patient to put the care plan into action and make progress towards reaching the desired health goals. It involves the application of therapeutic communication, problem-solving, and interventions to address the patient's needs. Establishing rapport and trust is typically done in the orientation phase, while defining roles and boundaries usually occurs in the introductory phase of the relationship. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they describe activities more aligned with other phases of the nurse-patient relationship, such as orientation and introductory phases.
2. A client with cirrhosis and ascites is receiving furosemide 40 mg BID. The pharmacy provides 20 mg tablets. How many tablets should the client receive each day? [Enter numeric value only]
- A. 4 tablets
- B. 3 tablets
- C. 2 tablets
- D. 1 tablet
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the total daily dose of furosemide needed, 40 mg BID (twice a day) is 80 mg/day. Since each tablet is 20 mg, the client should receive a total of 4 tablets per day (80 mg ÷ 20 mg per tablet = 4 tablets). Therefore, the correct answer is 4 tablets. Choice B (3 tablets) is incorrect because it does not provide the correct total daily dose. Choice C (2 tablets) is incorrect as it would not meet the required dose of 80 mg/day. Choice D (1 tablet) is incorrect as it would be insufficient to achieve the prescribed daily dose.
3. The nurse plans to assist a male client out of bed for the first time since his surgery yesterday. His wife objects and tells the nurse to get out of the room because her husband is too ill to get out of bed. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer nasal oxygen at a rate of 5 L/min
- B. Help the client to lie back down in the bed
- C. Quickly pivot the client to the chair and elevate the legs
- D. Check the client’s blood pressure and pulse
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Before assisting the client out of bed, the nurse should first assess the client's blood pressure and pulse. This assessment is crucial to determine the client's physiological stability and readiness for ambulation. It ensures the client's safety during the transfer and helps prevent any potential complications that may arise from getting out of bed. Administering oxygen, lying the client back down, or quickly moving the client to a chair without assessing vital signs can compromise the client's safety and may lead to adverse outcomes.
4. When assisting a client from the bed to a chair, which procedure is best for the nurse to follow?
- A. Place the chair parallel to the bed, with its back toward the head of the bed, and assist the client in moving to the chair.
- B. With the nurse's feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's knees, stand and pivot the client into the chair.
- C. Assist the client to a standing position by gently lifting upward underneath the axillae.
- D. Stand beside the client, place the client's arms around the nurse's neck, and gently move the client to the chair.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Option B is the best procedure for the nurse to follow when assisting a client from the bed to a chair. This option emphasizes the correct positioning of the nurse with feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's, providing a stable base of support. By standing and pivoting the client into the chair, the nurse can maintain control and stability, especially around the client's knees, ensuring a safe transfer.
5. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?
- A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
- B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
- C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
- D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.
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