Nursing Elites

1. What is the main purpose of the working phase of the nurse-patient relationship?

• A. Establish a formal or informal contract that addresses the patient's problems.
• B. Implement nursing interventions that are designed to achieve expected patient outcomes.
• C. Develop rapport and trust so the patient feels supported, and the initial plan can be identified.
• D. Clearly identify the role of the nurse and establish the parameters of the professional relationship.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The main purpose of the working phase in the nurse-patient relationship is to implement nursing interventions that are specifically tailored to achieve the expected patient outcomes. During this phase, the nurse actively works with the patient to put the care plan into action and make progress towards reaching the desired health goals. It involves the application of therapeutic communication, problem-solving, and interventions to address the patient's needs. Establishing rapport and trust is typically done in the orientation phase, while defining roles and boundaries usually occurs in the introductory phase of the relationship. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they describe activities more aligned with other phases of the nurse-patient relationship, such as orientation and introductory phases.

2. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

3. When evaluating the effectiveness of a client’s nursing care, the nurse first reviews the expected outcomes identified in the plan of care. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Determine if the expected outcomes were realistic
• B. Obtain current client data to compare with expected outcomes
• C. Modify the nursing interventions to achieve the client’s goals
• D. Review related professional standards of care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After reviewing the expected outcomes identified in the plan of care, the nurse's next step should be to determine if these outcomes were realistic. This assessment helps in understanding if the goals set were achievable and appropriate for the client's condition before proceeding to compare them with current client data or modifying nursing interventions. By verifying the realism of the expected outcomes, the nurse ensures a solid foundation for further evaluation and adjustment of the care plan. Option B is incorrect because obtaining current client data comes after assessing the realism of the expected outcomes. Option C is incorrect because modifying nursing interventions should be based on the assessment of the expected outcomes' realism. Option D is incorrect as reviewing professional standards of care is important but not the immediate next step after assessing the expected outcomes' realism.

4. What assessment finding places a client at risk for problems associated with impaired skin integrity?

• A. Scattered macules on the face
• B. Capillary refill of 5 seconds
• C. Smooth nail texture
• D. Presence of skin tenting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A capillary refill time greater than 3 seconds indicates poor perfusion, leading to impaired skin integrity. Delayed capillary refill can compromise blood flow to the skin, increasing the risk of pressure ulcers or wounds due to reduced tissue perfusion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because scattered macules on the face, smooth nail texture, and presence of skin tenting are not direct indicators of impaired skin integrity or risk for skin problems.

5. The healthcare provider attaches a pulse oximeter to a client's fingers and obtains an oxygen saturation reading of 91%. Which assessment finding most likely contributes to this reading?

• A. BP 142/88 mmHg
• B. 2+ edema of fingers and hands
• C. Radial pulse volume is +3
• D. Capillary refill time is 2 seconds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Edema in the fingers and hands can impede the proper functioning of the pulse oximeter, leading to a falsely low oxygen saturation reading. Edema alters the transmission of light through the tissues, affecting the accuracy of the measurement. Therefore, the presence of edema in the fingers and hands is the most likely factor contributing to the low oxygen saturation reading of 91%.

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