Nursing Elites

1. The client is reinforcing instructions for a low-sodium diet. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid adding salt to my food while cooking.
• B. I will use salt substitutes instead of regular salt.
• C. I can eat as much processed food as I like since it's usually low in sodium.
• D. I will read food labels to check for sodium content.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Processed foods often contain high amounts of sodium, so they should be limited or avoided on a low-sodium diet. Choosing processed foods can lead to increased sodium intake, counteracting the purpose of following a low-sodium diet. Option A shows an understanding of avoiding added salt, Option B suggests using alternatives to regular salt, and Option D indicates a willingness to check food labels for sodium content, all of which are appropriate for a low-sodium diet. Therefore, the client's statement about eating processed foods freely is incorrect and requires further teaching.

2. A client receives discharge teaching for a new prescription of lithium. Which instruction should be included?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Increase your intake of sodium.
• C. Monitor for signs of hypercalcemia.
• D. Avoid consuming dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client receives discharge teaching for a new prescription of lithium is to increase their intake of sodium. Lithium can lead to decreased sodium levels, putting the individual at risk of developing hyponatremia. By increasing sodium intake, the client can counteract this risk, maintain a proper sodium balance, and prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking lithium with food, monitoring for signs of hypercalcemia, and avoiding dairy products are not directly related to managing the side effects or risks associated with lithium therapy.

3. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

4. The client is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that works by dilating blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is crucial as it can be a potential adverse effect of this medication. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypertension is the condition enalapril is used to treat, so it would not be an adverse effect. Tachycardia is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Enalapril does not typically cause hyperglycemia, as it primarily affects blood pressure regulation.

5. A client is wearing a continuous cardiac monitor, which begins to alarm at the nurse's station. The nurse sees no electrocardiographic complexes on the screen. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Call a code blue.
• B. Call the healthcare provider.
• C. Check the client's status and lead placement.
• D. Press the recorder button on the ECG console.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is to check the client's status and lead placement. This step is crucial to ensure that the alarm is not triggered by a simple issue such as lead displacement. Calling a code blue (choice A) is premature without assessing the client first. Contacting the healthcare provider (choice B) can be done after ruling out basic causes for the alarm. Pressing the recorder button (choice D) is not as urgent as checking the client's status and lead placement in this scenario.

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