a client is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected myocardial infarction mi the nurse should prepare the client for which immediate dia
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Assessment A

1. A client is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse should prepare the client for which immediate diagnostic test?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An Electrocardiogram (ECG) is the most immediate and essential test to diagnose a myocardial infarction (MI) and assess the extent of heart damage. An ECG can quickly identify changes in the heart's electrical activity, allowing prompt initiation of appropriate interventions. A chest x-ray (Choice A) may show other conditions affecting the heart, but it is not the immediate test of choice for diagnosing an MI. An echocardiogram (Choice C) and coronary angiography (Choice D) are valuable in further assessing cardiac function and anatomy post-MI but are not the first-line diagnostic tests due to their time-consuming nature compared to an ECG.

2. A client is taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect associated with the long-term use of haloperidol. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities. Early detection is crucial as tardive dyskinesia may be irreversible and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and tremors are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as concerning as tardive dyskinesia. While they should still be monitored and managed, tardive dyskinesia requires immediate attention due to its potentially irreversible nature.

3. A client with peripheral artery disease (PAD) complains of pain in the legs while walking. Which instruction should the LPN/LVN reinforce to help alleviate the client's symptoms?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to take frequent breaks and walk shorter distances. This instruction helps alleviate symptoms in clients with peripheral artery disease (PAD) by allowing them to manage pain and discomfort more effectively. Option A is incorrect as waiting for the pain to become severe before resting can exacerbate symptoms. Option B, performing leg exercises while sitting, may not directly address the issue of pain during walking. Option C, elevating the legs on pillows while resting, is beneficial for other conditions like edema but may not specifically help alleviate pain while walking in PAD clients.

4. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because hypokalemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypoglycemia.

5. Prior to a dipyridamole thallium scan, what substance should the LPN/LVN ensure the client has not consumed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Caffeine should be avoided before a dipyridamole thallium scan as it can interfere with the test results. Caffeine is a stimulant that can affect the heart rate and may lead to inaccurate findings during the scan. Fatty meals, excess sugar, and milk products do not specifically interfere with the dipyridamole thallium scan procedure. Therefore, it is essential for the LPN/LVN to check and ensure that the client has not consumed caffeine prior to the procedure to obtain accurate diagnostic results.

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