a client is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected myocardial infarction mi the nurse should prepare the client for which immediate dia
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Assessment A

1. A client is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse should prepare the client for which immediate diagnostic test?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An Electrocardiogram (ECG) is the most immediate and essential test to diagnose a myocardial infarction (MI) and assess the extent of heart damage. An ECG can quickly identify changes in the heart's electrical activity, allowing prompt initiation of appropriate interventions. A chest x-ray (Choice A) may show other conditions affecting the heart, but it is not the immediate test of choice for diagnosing an MI. An echocardiogram (Choice C) and coronary angiography (Choice D) are valuable in further assessing cardiac function and anatomy post-MI but are not the first-line diagnostic tests due to their time-consuming nature compared to an ECG.

2. A client is admitted to the hospital with a venous stasis leg ulcer. The nurse inspects the ulcer expecting to note which observation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a venous stasis leg ulcer, the nurse should expect to note a brownish or 'brawny' appearance. This discoloration is often due to hemosiderin deposits. The correct answer is not A because venous stasis ulcers typically do not have a pale-colored base. Choice B is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers usually have irregular, shallow edges, not deep and even edges. Choice C is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers often have excess granulation tissue, not little granulation tissue. Recognizing the brownish or 'brawny' appearance is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of venous stasis leg ulcers.

3. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed atenolol (Tenormin). The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that commonly causes hypotension by lowering blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent potential complications in the client receiving this medication. The other options are incorrect: A) Tachycardia is not a common side effect of atenolol as it typically reduces heart rate, B) Dry mouth is not a typical side effect of atenolol, and D) Increased appetite is not commonly associated with atenolol use.

4. A client has been prescribed ciprofloxacin and is receiving discharge teaching. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid exposure to sunlight. Ciprofloxacin can increase the risk of photosensitivity, making it important to protect the skin from sunlight to prevent skin reactions. This precaution can help prevent skin damage and discomfort in individuals taking ciprofloxacin. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking ciprofloxacin with milk is not recommended as it may reduce the absorption of the medication. There is no specific instruction to take ciprofloxacin at bedtime. Increasing vitamin K intake is not directly related to ciprofloxacin therapy.

5. A client has a new prescription for methotrexate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing folic acid intake is crucial when taking methotrexate because the medication can lead to folic acid deficiency. Folic acid supplementation helps counteract this deficiency and reduces the risk of adverse effects associated with methotrexate therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding dairy products is not specifically necessary for methotrexate therapy. Methotrexate is usually taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia is not directly related to methotrexate use.

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