Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for prednisone. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

• A. You may experience weight gain.
• B. Increase your intake of vitamin K.
• C. Expect increased urinary output.
• D. You may have dark, tarry stools.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight gain is a common side effect of prednisone. The nurse should educate the client about the possibility of weight gain and the need to monitor it closely during treatment with prednisone. Choice B is incorrect because increasing vitamin K intake is not specifically related to prednisone therapy. Choice C is incorrect as prednisone is more likely to cause fluid retention rather than increased urinary output. Choice D is incorrect as dark, tarry stools are not a common side effect of prednisone.

2. The client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is scheduled for a stress test. What instruction should the nurse provide to the client before the test?

• A. Continue taking your usual dose of beta-blockers
• B. Refrain from eating or drinking anything for 4 hours before the test
• C. Wear loose, comfortable clothing and walking shoes
• D. Avoid any physical activity for 24 hours before the test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before a stress test, the nurse should instruct the client to wear loose, comfortable clothing and walking shoes. This is essential as the stress test involves physical exercise, and the client should be ready for the activity involved. Continuing beta-blockers should be based on healthcare provider's instructions; adjustments may be needed. Fasting before the test is usually not necessary. Avoiding physical activity for 24 hours before the test is not recommended as it may affect the accuracy of the test results by not providing a true reflection of the client's exercise capacity.

3. Why should the client diagnosed with rheumatic heart disease be advised to notify the dentist before dental procedures?

• A. The client requires prophylactic antibiotics before treatment.
• B. The client may experience dysrhythmias with high-speed drills.
• C. The client may have an adverse reaction to lidocaine with epinephrine.
• D. The client may develop heart failure during stressful events.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with rheumatic heart disease are at risk for infective endocarditis, a serious infection of the heart lining or valves. They need prophylactic antibiotics before invasive procedures, including dental work, to prevent this life-threatening complication. While dysrhythmias with high-speed drills, adverse reactions to local anesthesia, and the risk of heart failure during stressful events are all concerns for clients with heart conditions, the primary reason for notifying the dentist before dental procedures in rheumatic heart disease is the need for prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infective endocarditis.

4. The nurse is assisting with the care of a client diagnosed with heart failure. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days
• B. Increased urination at night
• C. Mild shortness of breath on exertion
• D. Decreased appetite and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days is concerning in a client with heart failure as it can indicate fluid retention and worsening of the condition. This finding requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications. Increased urination at night (choice B) may be due to various reasons like diuretic use and is not an immediate concern. Mild shortness of breath on exertion (choice C) is expected in clients with heart failure and may not require immediate reporting. Decreased appetite and fatigue (choice D) are common symptoms in heart failure but are not as urgent as sudden weight gain.

5. A client has a new prescription for heparin. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory result that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin. Heparin works by prolonging the aPTT, and monitoring this parameter helps ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety in preventing clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, another anticoagulant. Platelet count is essential to assess platelet function and clotting disorders, but it is not specifically used to monitor heparin therapy.

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