ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client has a new prescription for heparin. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory result that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin. Heparin works by prolonging the aPTT, and monitoring this parameter helps ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety in preventing clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, another anticoagulant. Platelet count is essential to assess platelet function and clotting disorders, but it is not specifically used to monitor heparin therapy.
2. Alice is rushed to the emergency department during an acute, severe prolonged asthma attack and is unresponsive to usual treatment. The condition is referred to as which of the following?
- A. Status asthmaticus
- B. Reactive airway disease
- C. Intrinsic asthma
- D. Extrinsic asthma
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Status asthmaticus is a life-threatening condition characterized by a severe and prolonged asthma attack that does not respond to standard treatments. It requires immediate medical intervention to prevent respiratory failure and potential fatality. Reactive airway disease, intrinsic asthma, and extrinsic asthma do not specifically denote the severity and unresponsiveness to treatment seen in status asthmaticus.
3. A nurse is teaching postoperative care to the parents of a toddler following a cleft palate repair. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
- A. Provide an orthodontic pacifier for comfort
- B. Offer fluids using a straw
- C. Cleanse the suture line with a cotton-tip swab
- D. Remove elbow splints periodically to perform range of motion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Elbow splints are utilized to prevent the child from touching the surgical site. However, it is essential to remove them periodically to conduct range-of-motion exercises to prevent joint stiffness. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because providing an orthodontic pacifier, offering fluids using a straw, and cleansing the suture line with a cotton-tip swab are not directly related to postoperative care following a cleft palate repair.
4. A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?
- A. Shortly after giving birth
- B. In the third trimester
- C. Immediately
- D. During the next attempt to get pregnant
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rubella immunization is recommended shortly after giving birth for a pregnant individual who lacks immunity. This timing ensures the client is protected from rubella in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine postpartum allows the body to develop immunity without posing any risk to the developing fetus during pregnancy. Option B is incorrect because administering the rubella vaccine in the third trimester can potentially expose the developing fetus to the live virus, which is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as there is a preferred timing for rubella immunization in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current pregnancy from rubella exposure.
5. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about a clear liquid diet. What should the client avoid?
- A. Lemon-lime sports drinks
- B. Orange sherbet
- C. Black coffee
- D. Ginger ale
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Ginger ale. A clear liquid diet includes fluids that are see-through and easily digestible. Ginger ale is a carbonated beverage that is allowed on a clear liquid diet. Orange sherbet, choice B, is not suitable for a clear liquid diet as it contains dairy products and solid particles, which are not transparent. Lemon-lime sports drinks, choice A, may contain added colorings or particles that are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Black coffee, choice C, is also not recommended on a clear liquid diet as it is not a clear liquid and contains substances that may be hard to digest.
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