Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is on a continuous heparin infusion for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy in a client with DVT, the nurse should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test helps ensure that the dose of heparin is within the therapeutic range, which is essential for preventing clot formation or excessive bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in managing patients on heparin therapy to maintain the delicate balance between preventing thrombosis and avoiding hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more indicative of warfarin therapy effectiveness, not heparin. Platelet count assesses platelet levels and function, not the effectiveness of heparin therapy for DVT.

2. A client has a new prescription for transdermal nitroglycerin patches. Which of the following instructions should be included for proper use?

• A. Apply the patch to the same site each day.
• B. Place the patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints.
• C. Keep the patch on 24 hours per day.
• D. Replace the patch every 72 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the nitroglycerin patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints is crucial to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Placing the patch on skin folds or joints can interfere with absorption, potentially reducing the patch's efficacy. Therefore, it is essential to follow this instruction to maximize the therapeutic benefits of the nitroglycerin patches. The other options are incorrect because applying the patch to the same site each day can lead to skin irritation, keeping the patch on 24 hours per day may not be necessary depending on the specific patch instructions, and replacing the patch every 72 hours is not the standard frequency for nitroglycerin patches.

3. A client's serum calcium level is 7.9 mg/dL. The nurse is immediately concerned, knowing that this level could lead to which complication?

• A. Stroke
• B. Cardiac arrest
• C. High blood pressure
• D. Urinary stone formation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum calcium level below normal (hypocalcemia) can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and potentially cardiac arrest. Calcium plays a crucial role in cardiac muscle contractility, and low levels can disrupt normal heart function, potentially leading to fatal arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as hypocalcemia is not directly associated with stroke, high blood pressure, or urinary stone formation. The immediate concern with low serum calcium levels is the risk of cardiac complications.

4. A client with myocardial infarction (MI) has been transferred from the coronary care unit (CCU) to the general medical unit with cardiac monitoring via telemetry. The nurse assisting in caring for the client expects to note which type of activity prescribed?

• A. Strict bed rest for 24 hours
• B. Bathroom privileges and self-care activities
• C. Unrestricted activities because the client is monitored
• D. Unsupervised hallway ambulation with distances less than 200 feet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After being transferred from the CCU to the general medical unit with cardiac monitoring, the client with MI is typically prescribed bathroom privileges and self-care activities. This approach allows for gradual recovery and mobility while still being closely monitored, promoting the client's overall well-being and independence. Choice A, strict bed rest for 24 hours, is too restrictive and not recommended for MI patients as it can lead to complications like deep vein thrombosis. Choice C, unrestricted activities, is also not appropriate as MI patients usually require monitoring and gradual re-introduction to activities. Choice D, unsupervised hallway ambulation with distances less than 200 feet, may be too strenuous for a client who just got transferred from the CCU and needs a more gradual approach to activity.

5. The client admitted to the hospital with pulmonary edema is preparing for discharge. The client should be reminded of the importance of complying with which measure to prevent a recurrence?

• A. Weigh oneself every morning before breakfast.
• B. Sleep with the head elevated on multiple pillows.
• C. Adjust diuretic dose without healthcare provider guidance.
• D. Take additional digoxin (Lanoxin) as a preventive measure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring weight daily, especially in the morning before breakfast, is crucial in detecting fluid retention early and preventing pulmonary edema. Sudden weight gain can indicate fluid accumulation, prompting timely intervention to prevent complications. Choice A is the correct answer because daily weight monitoring is a key component in managing heart failure and preventing pulmonary edema recurrence. Choices B and D are not directly related to preventing fluid retention or pulmonary edema recurrence. Choice C is unsafe as adjusting diuretic doses without healthcare provider guidance can lead to electrolyte imbalances and worsening of the condition.

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