HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. The LPN/LVN is providing discharge teaching for a client who is 24 hours postpartum. The nurse explains to the client that her vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. The client asks, 'What if I start having red bleeding after it changes?' What should the nurse instruct the client to do?
- A. Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Go to bed and assume a knee-chest position.
- C. Massage the uterus and go to the emergency room.
- D. Do not worry as this is a normal occurrence.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: If the client experiences a return to red bleeding after transitioning to pink and white, it may indicate possible complications like hemorrhage or retained placental fragments. Instructing the client to reduce activity level and promptly notify the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and management of these potentially serious postpartum complications. Choice B is incorrect as assuming a knee-chest position is not the appropriate action for red bleeding postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the uterus without professional assessment can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect because red bleeding after transitioning is not normal and should be evaluated promptly.
2. When another nurse enters the room in response to a call, after checking the client's pulse and respirations during CPR on an adult in cardiopulmonary arrest, what should be the function of the second nurse?
- A. Relieve the nurse performing CPR
- B. Go get the code cart
- C. Participate with the compressions or breathing
- D. Validate the client's advanced directive
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to participate in compressions or breathing. This is essential to ensure continuous and effective CPR. Relieving the nurse performing CPR (Choice A) is not recommended as it can interrupt the life-saving procedure. Going to get the code cart (Choice B) may be necessary in certain situations but should not take precedence over providing immediate assistance in CPR. Validating the client's advanced directive (Choice D) is not the primary role in this scenario where urgent action is needed to support the client's circulation and breathing.
3. A client who is 32-weeks pregnant is diagnosed with partial placenta previa. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client’s teaching plan?
- A. Wear a tight abdominal binder at all times
- B. Take a daily laxative to prevent constipation
- C. Refrain from sexual intercourse until your next appointment
- D. Restrict fluids to less than 1000 ml per day
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Refraining from sexual intercourse helps prevent complications with partial placenta previa.
4. Which of the following tests is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease?
- A. Cervical excitation test
- B. Chadwick sign
- C. Jacquiners sign
- D. Palmers sign
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cervical excitation test. The cervical excitation test is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease. This test involves pain or tenderness upon movement of the cervix, indicating inflammation of the pelvic organs. Chadwick sign (choice B) refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia due to increased vascularity and is not a test for PID. Jacquiners sign (choice C) and Palmers sign (choice D) are not recognized clinical signs or tests for PID, making them incorrect choices.
5. Which of the following options is the term used to represent alternative versions of a gene?
- A. Alleles
- B. Binary fission
- C. Heterozygous
- D. Homozygous
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alleles. Alleles are different forms of a gene that can exist at a specific locus on a chromosome. They represent variations in a gene's DNA sequence. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction in single-celled organisms, while heterozygous and homozygous refer to different combinations of alleles in an individual, not the alternative versions of a gene.