Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is providing discharge teaching for a client who is 24 hours postpartum. The nurse explains to the client that her vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. The client asks, 'What if I start having red bleeding after it changes?' What should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Go to bed and assume a knee-chest position.
• C. Massage the uterus and go to the emergency room.
• D. Do not worry as this is a normal occurrence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If the client experiences a return to red bleeding after transitioning to pink and white, it may indicate possible complications like hemorrhage or retained placental fragments. Instructing the client to reduce activity level and promptly notify the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and management of these potentially serious postpartum complications. Choice B is incorrect as assuming a knee-chest position is not the appropriate action for red bleeding postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the uterus without professional assessment can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect because red bleeding after transitioning is not normal and should be evaluated promptly.

2. During the admission procedure of a 6-year-old, the child states, 'I’m going to have an operation.' Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this child?

• A. Are you scared?
• B. We’re going to do everything we can to take very good care of you.
• C. Tell me what an operation is.
• D. I’m glad your mother told you why you were coming to the hospital.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate response for the nurse is to provide reassurance and express care to alleviate the child's anxiety about the upcoming operation. By reassuring the child that everything will be done to take very good care of them, the nurse helps build trust and comfort, creating a positive and supportive environment for the child.

3. What is the most important assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct before the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client at 40 weeks' gestation?

• A. Maternal blood pressure.
• B. Level of pain sensation.
• C. Station of presenting part.
• D. Variability of fetal heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing maternal blood pressure is crucial before administering epidural anesthesia because it can cause hypotension, affecting both the mother and the fetus. Hypotension can lead to decreased placental perfusion, potentially compromising the fetal oxygen supply. Monitoring and maintaining maternal blood pressure within a safe range are essential to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the fetus during the administration of epidural anesthesia. The other options, such as assessing the level of pain sensation, station of presenting part, and variability of fetal heart rate, are important in obstetric care but are not as critical as monitoring maternal blood pressure to prevent complications related to epidural anesthesia administration.

4. Client teaching is an important part of the maternity nurse's role. Which factor has the greatest influence on successful teaching of the gravid client?

• A. The client's readiness to learn.
• B. The client's educational background.
• C. The order in which the information is presented.
• D. The extent to which the pregnancy was planned.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's readiness to learn is the most critical factor influencing successful teaching of the gravid client. When a client is receptive and motivated to learn, they are more likely to engage with the information provided, leading to better understanding and retention.

5. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?

• A. 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia.
• B. Periorbital edema, flashing lights, and aura.
• C. Epigastric pain in the third trimester.
• D. Recent decreased urinary output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.

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