HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. After a client delivered vaginally 2 days ago, what information should you share with her if she wants to resume using her diaphragm for birth control?
- A. The diaphragm is the most effective form of contraception.
- B. The diaphragm must be refitted after childbirth.
- C. Vaseline lubricant should be used when inserting the diaphragm.
- D. The diaphragm should be inserted 2 to 4 hours before intercourse.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After childbirth, the diaphragm must be refitted to ensure a proper fit and effectiveness. Changes in the body post-delivery can affect the fit of the diaphragm, making it necessary to get refitted. Choice A is incorrect because while the diaphragm can be effective, it is not the most effective form of contraception. Choice C is incorrect because oil-based lubricants like Vaseline can damage latex diaphragms. Choice D is incorrect because the diaphragm should be inserted no more than 2 hours before intercourse, not 2 to 4 hours.
2. What maternal behavior is typically observed when a new mother first receives her infant?
- A. She eagerly reaches for the infant, undresses the infant, and examines the infant completely.
- B. Her arms and hands receive the infant and she then traces the infant's profile with her fingertips.
- C. Her arms and hands receive the infant and she then cuddles the infant to her own body.
- D. She eagerly reaches for the infant and then holds the infant close to her own body.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a new mother first receives her infant, a typical maternal behavior is to use her arms and hands to receive the infant and then trace the infant's profile with her fingertips. This action is a gentle way of bonding with the newborn and aids in recognizing the infant's features. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the common behavior of tracing the infant's profile, which is a significant part of the initial interaction between a mother and her newborn.
3. A pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit. In reviewing her childbearing history, the client indicates that she has delivered premature twins, one full-term baby, and has had no abortions. Which GTPAL should the LPN/LVN document in this client's record?
- A. 3-1-2-0-3.
- B. 4-1-2-0-3.
- C. 2-1-2-1-2.
- D. 3-1-1-0-3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct GTPAL for this client is 3-1-1-0-3. G (Gravida) is 3, indicating a total of 3 pregnancies. T (Term) is 1, representing 1 full-term delivery. P (Preterm) is 1, not 2 as mentioned in the question, as twins count as one pregnancy event. A (Abortions) is 0, and L (Living) is 3, indicating 3 living children (twins count as 1). Therefore, the correct answer is 3-1-1-0-3.
4. A full-term infant is transferred to the nursery from labor and delivery. Which information is most important for the LPN/LVN to receive when planning immediate care for the newborn?
- A. Length of labor and method of delivery.
- B. Infant's condition at birth and treatment received.
- C. Feeding method chosen by the parents.
- D. History of drugs given to the mother during labor.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a full-term infant is transferred to the nursery, the most crucial information for the LPN/LVN to receive for immediate care planning is the infant's condition at birth and any treatments received. This data helps in determining the initial care needs and monitoring requirements for the newborn. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical as the infant's condition at birth and treatment received. The length of labor and method of delivery may provide background information but may not be as essential for immediate care planning. The feeding method chosen by the parents and the history of drugs given to the mother during labor are important but do not take precedence over knowing the infant's condition and treatment received.
5. During a non-stress test (NST) at 41-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN notes that the client is not experiencing contractions, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 144 bpm, and no FHR accelerations are present. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Check the client for urinary bladder distention.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the nonreactive results.
- C. Have the mother stimulate the fetus to move.
- D. Ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement. This action is important as assessing for fetal movement can help determine if the absence of FHR accelerations is attributed to fetal sleep or decreased fetal activity. It is crucial to gather information directly from the client to aid in the assessment and decision-making process. This approach can provide valuable insights into the fetal well-being and guide further interventions if needed.
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