HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. After a client delivered vaginally 2 days ago, what information should you share with her if she wants to resume using her diaphragm for birth control?
- A. The diaphragm is the most effective form of contraception.
- B. The diaphragm must be refitted after childbirth.
- C. Vaseline lubricant should be used when inserting the diaphragm.
- D. The diaphragm should be inserted 2 to 4 hours before intercourse.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After childbirth, the diaphragm must be refitted to ensure a proper fit and effectiveness. Changes in the body post-delivery can affect the fit of the diaphragm, making it necessary to get refitted. Choice A is incorrect because while the diaphragm can be effective, it is not the most effective form of contraception. Choice C is incorrect because oil-based lubricants like Vaseline can damage latex diaphragms. Choice D is incorrect because the diaphragm should be inserted no more than 2 hours before intercourse, not 2 to 4 hours.
2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a vaccine to a 5-year-old child. The child is visibly anxious and asks if the shot will hurt. What is the healthcare provider’s best response?
- A. It might hurt a little, but it will be over quickly
- B. It won't hurt at all, don't worry
- C. You're a big kid now, and big kids don't cry
- D. If you don't think about it, it won't hurt
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a child expresses fear or anxiety about receiving a vaccination, it is essential for the healthcare provider to provide honest and reassuring information. Choice A acknowledges the potential for some discomfort but also reassures the child that it will be over quickly. This response validates the child's feelings while also preparing them for the procedure. Choices B, C, and D either provide false reassurance, dismiss the child's feelings, or suggest avoidance, which are not appropriate responses in this situation.
3. The nurse notes that a client who has undergone a thoracotomy has an increase in a large amount of dark red blood in the chest tube collection chamber. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Document the findings for this procedure as expected
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
- C. Check the tube for kinks or dependent loops
- D. Increase the suction to the chest drainage system
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An increase in a large amount of dark red blood in the chest tube collection chamber may indicate active bleeding. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to address the situation promptly and prevent further complications. Documenting the findings without taking immediate action could delay necessary interventions. Checking the tube for kinks or dependent loops is a good practice but not the priority when dealing with a potentially life-threatening situation like active bleeding. Increasing the suction without healthcare provider's orders can lead to complications and is not appropriate in this scenario.
4. When a patient starts taking amoxicillin, which foods should the nurse instruct the patient to avoid?
- A. Green leafy vegetables
- B. Beef and other red meat
- C. Coffee, tea, and colas
- D. Acidic fruits and juices
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Acidic fruits and juices. Amoxicillin can be irritating to the stomach, so avoiding acidic fruits and juices is recommended to reduce stomach discomfort or potential interactions. Green leafy vegetables (Choice A), beef and other red meat (Choice B), and coffee, tea, and colas (Choice C) are not typically contraindicated with amoxicillin. It is important to focus on acidic foods and beverages to promote comfort and effectiveness of the medication.
5. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?
- A. A gravida 6, para 5 who is 38 years of age and in early labor.
- B. A 37-week primigravida who presents at 100% effacement, 3 cm cervical dilation, and a -1 station.
- C. A gravida 2, para 1 who is at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station admitted for induction of labor due to postdates.
- D. A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilation and the presenting part is not engaged.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.