HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. After a client delivered vaginally 2 days ago, what information should you share with her if she wants to resume using her diaphragm for birth control?
- A. The diaphragm is the most effective form of contraception.
- B. The diaphragm must be refitted after childbirth.
- C. Vaseline lubricant should be used when inserting the diaphragm.
- D. The diaphragm should be inserted 2 to 4 hours before intercourse.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After childbirth, the diaphragm must be refitted to ensure a proper fit and effectiveness. Changes in the body post-delivery can affect the fit of the diaphragm, making it necessary to get refitted. Choice A is incorrect because while the diaphragm can be effective, it is not the most effective form of contraception. Choice C is incorrect because oil-based lubricants like Vaseline can damage latex diaphragms. Choice D is incorrect because the diaphragm should be inserted no more than 2 hours before intercourse, not 2 to 4 hours.
2. A newborn with a yellow abdomen and chest is being assessed. What should be the nurse's initial action?
- A. Assess bilirubin level.
- B. Administer phototherapy.
- C. Encourage feeding to help reduce bilirubin levels.
- D. Perform a bilirubin test every hour.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action when assessing a newborn with a yellow abdomen and chest is to initially assess the bilirubin level. This helps determine the severity of jaundice in the newborn. Administering phototherapy (choice B) is a treatment intervention that follows the assessment. Encouraging feeding (choice C) can help with bilirubin excretion but is not the initial assessment. Performing a bilirubin test every hour (choice D) may not be necessary initially and could lead to unnecessary interventions.
3. During a well-child visit for their child, one of the parents with an autosomal dominant disorder tells the nurse, 'We don’t plan on having any more children, since the next child is likely to inherit this disorder.' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Explain that the risk of inheriting the disorder decreases by 50% with each child the couple has.
- B. Acknowledge that the next child will inherit the disorder since the first child did not.
- C. Encourage the couple to reconsider their decision since the inheritance pattern may be sex-linked.
- D. Confirm that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Confirming that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder is the correct response in this situation. Autosomal dominant disorders have a 50% chance of being passed on to each child. Providing accurate genetic counseling is essential to help the parents make informed decisions about family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the risk of inheriting an autosomal dominant disorder remains at 50% for each child regardless of the number of children the couple has. Choice B is not appropriate as it does not provide helpful information or support to the parents. Choice C is misleading because autosomal dominant disorders follow a specific inheritance pattern and are not sex-linked.
4. A new mother who is breastfeeding her 4-week-old infant and has type 1 diabetes reports that her insulin needs have decreased since the birth of her child. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Inform her that a decreased need for insulin occurs while breastfeeding.
- B. Counsel her to increase her caloric intake.
- C. Advise the client to breastfeed more frequently.
- D. Schedule an appointment for the client with the diabetic nurse educator.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. During breastfeeding, insulin needs often decrease due to the metabolic demands of milk production. Therefore, the nurse should inform the client that this decrease in insulin requirements is a normal response to breastfeeding. Choice B is incorrect as increasing caloric intake is not directly related to the decrease in insulin needs during breastfeeding. Choice C is incorrect as advising the client to breastfeed more frequently does not address the issue of decreased insulin needs. Choice D is incorrect as scheduling an appointment with the diabetic nurse educator is not necessary at this point since the decreased need for insulin is a common physiological response to breastfeeding.
5. A client is admitted to the postpartum unit and tells the nurse she had rheumatic fever as a child, which resulted in some 'heart damage'. The nurse knows that this client is at particular risk for developing heart failure during the immediate postpartum period. Based on the client's history, which nursing problem has the highest priority?
- A. Nausea and vomiting.
- B. Risk for infection.
- C. Sleep deprivation.
- D. Fluid volume excess.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Fluid volume excess is a priority concern in this client, as heart damage from rheumatic fever can impair the heart's ability to manage increased blood volume postpartum, leading to potential heart failure. Monitoring and managing fluid volume status are crucial to prevent complications in this high-risk client. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority in this situation. Nausea and vomiting, risk for infection, and sleep deprivation are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's physiologic stability compared to the risk of heart failure due to fluid volume excess.
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