the lpnlvn is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 ml 5 dextrose with 40 meq of pot
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology

1. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hypotension, particularly following the initial dose or dosage escalation. This effect is due to the medication's mechanism of action in dilating blood vessels, which can result in lowered blood pressure. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting in clients taking enalapril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, tachycardia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects.

3. The healthcare provider is reinforcing teaching for a client who is starting statin therapy. Which dietary advice should the healthcare provider give?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice. Grapefruit and grapefruit juice can interfere with the metabolism of statins, leading to an increased risk of adverse effects. It is crucial for clients on statin therapy to avoid grapefruit products to ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly impact the metabolism or effectiveness of statin therapy.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lithium carbonate. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tremors. Tremors are a sign of lithium toxicity and should be reported immediately. Increased urination is a common side effect of lithium but not an urgent concern requiring immediate reporting. Weight gain is also a common side effect of lithium but does not indicate toxicity. Blurred vision is not typically associated with lithium toxicity; therefore, it is not the priority finding to report.

5. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed atenolol (Tenormin). The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that commonly causes hypotension by lowering blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent potential complications in the client receiving this medication. The other options are incorrect: A) Tachycardia is not a common side effect of atenolol as it typically reduces heart rate, B) Dry mouth is not a typical side effect of atenolol, and D) Increased appetite is not commonly associated with atenolol use.

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