Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is assisting in the care of a client with a diagnosis of heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is serum potassium. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial when a client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) because low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin and low potassium levels can lead to serious cardiac complications, such as arrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium is essential to prevent adverse effects and ensure the safe administration of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Serum sodium, serum calcium, and serum glucose levels are also important laboratory values to monitor in clients with heart failure, but they are not directly associated with the risk of digoxin toxicity. Monitoring these values helps in assessing overall health status, fluid balance, and metabolic functions in the client.

2. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

3. A client is taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Tremors
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect associated with the long-term use of haloperidol. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities. Early detection is crucial as tardive dyskinesia may be irreversible and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and tremors are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as concerning as tardive dyskinesia. While they should still be monitored and managed, tardive dyskinesia requires immediate attention due to its potentially irreversible nature.

4. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit and is monitoring the client for cardiac changes indicative of hypokalemia. Which occurrence noted on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hypokalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST-segment depression
• C. Prolonged P-R interval
• D. Widening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: B

Rationale: ST-segment depression can indicate hypokalemia, affecting the heart's electrical conduction. Hypokalemia leads to alterations in the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, resulting in ST-segment depression on the ECG. Tall, peaked T waves are indicative of hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged P-R interval is more commonly associated with first-degree heart block. Widening of the QRS complex is typically seen in conditions like bundle branch blocks or ventricular tachycardia, not specifically in hypokalemia.

5. The healthcare provider is setting up the bedside unit for a client being admitted to the nursing unit from the emergency department with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease (CAD). The provider should place the highest priority on making sure that which is available at the bedside?

• A. Bedside commode
• B. Rolling shower chair
• C. Oxygen tubing and flowmeter
• D. Twelve-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) machine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with coronary artery disease (CAD), ensuring the availability of oxygen and a flowmeter at the bedside is crucial. Oxygen is essential for adequate oxygenation, which helps prevent myocardial ischemia, a common complication in CAD. The other options, such as a bedside commode and rolling shower chair, are important for patient comfort and mobility but are not as critical as ensuring proper oxygen supply in a client with CAD. While having an ECG machine available is important for ongoing monitoring, ensuring oxygen availability takes precedence in this scenario.

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