ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Assessment A
1. The LPN/LVN is assisting in the care of a client with a diagnosis of heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum sodium
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Serum calcium
- D. Serum glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is serum potassium. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial when a client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) because low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin and low potassium levels can lead to serious cardiac complications, such as arrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium is essential to prevent adverse effects and ensure the safe administration of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Serum sodium, serum calcium, and serum glucose levels are also important laboratory values to monitor in clients with heart failure, but they are not directly associated with the risk of digoxin toxicity. Monitoring these values helps in assessing overall health status, fluid balance, and metabolic functions in the client.
2. A client has a new prescription for allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Increase your fluid intake.
- C. Avoid consuming dairy products.
- D. Take the medication in the morning.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increasing fluid intake is essential when taking allopurinol to prevent the formation of kidney stones. Allopurinol can increase the levels of uric acid in the body, which can lead to kidney stone formation. By increasing fluid intake, the client can help flush out excess uric acid and prevent the development of kidney stones. It is important to drink plenty of water throughout the day to maintain adequate hydration and reduce the risk of kidney stone formation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking allopurinol with food or in the morning does not specifically relate to preventing kidney stone formation. Avoiding dairy products is not a standard recommendation when taking allopurinol.
3. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Avoid using a soft toothbrush.
- B. Report any signs of bleeding.
- C. Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables.
- D. Take the medication with food.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any signs of bleeding when taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that increases the risk of bleeding, so it is essential to monitor for any signs of abnormal bleeding and report them promptly for appropriate management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Instructing the client to avoid using a soft toothbrush is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Increasing the intake of leafy green vegetables is not recommended as they contain vitamin K, which can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects. Taking warfarin with food can be inconsistent and may not result in optimal absorption.
4. The client is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which lab test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Fibrinogen levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate lab test to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, a different anticoagulant that affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Fibrinogen levels are not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.
5. A client has just completed an information session about measures to minimize the progression of coronary artery disease (CAD). Which statement indicates an initial understanding of lifestyle alterations?
- A. I should take daily medication for life.
- B. I should eat a diet that is low in fat and cholesterol.
- C. I should continue to smoke to keep the metabolic rate high.
- D. I should begin to exercise if the diet is not sufficient to achieve weight loss.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choosing a diet that is low in fat and cholesterol is crucial for managing and preventing the progression of coronary artery disease (CAD). This dietary change can help reduce the risk of further complications associated with CAD, such as plaque buildup in the arteries. It is a fundamental lifestyle alteration that can positively impact the client's heart health. Option A is incorrect as relying solely on medication without lifestyle changes may not address the root cause of CAD. Option C is incorrect as smoking is harmful and worsens CAD. Option D is incorrect because exercise is a crucial part of a healthy lifestyle, but dietary changes should come first in managing CAD.
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