Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor your heart rate daily.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• D. Take the medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their heart rate daily when taking verapamil. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia, making it crucial to monitor the heart rate regularly to detect any changes promptly. Choice B, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically related to verapamil administration. Choice C, avoiding grapefruit juice, is more relevant to medications metabolized by CYP3A4 enzymes, not verapamil. Choice D, taking the medication with food, is not a specific instruction for verapamil, as it can be taken with or without food.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Prime the blood tubing with normal saline.
• B. Verify the client’s identity using two identifiers.
• C. Infuse the blood rapidly over 30 minutes.
• D. Obtain the client’s vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the client’s identity using two identifiers is a critical patient safety measure to ensure the correct patient receives the blood transfusion. This process involves checking the patient's identity using at least two unique identifiers, such as name, date of birth, or medical record number, to prevent administration errors. Priming the blood tubing with normal saline is necessary to ensure there are no air bubbles in the tubing, but it is not the immediate action required before administering the blood. Infusing packed red blood cells over 30 minutes is generally too rapid and can lead to adverse reactions; a slower rate is recommended for safe administration. Obtaining vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion is not frequent enough to monitor the client adequately for potential transfusion reactions or complications; vital signs should be monitored more frequently, especially during the initial phase of the transfusion.

3. The healthcare professional is assisting in the care of a client diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which instruction should be reinforced to prevent complications?

• A. Elevate the affected leg using pillows.
• B. Perform leg exercises while sitting.
• C. Wear snug compression stockings.
• D. Avoid applying ice packs to injuries.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the affected leg using pillows is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it helps reduce swelling and promote venous return, thereby decreasing the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. This position aids in improving blood circulation and preventing blood clots from forming or worsening in the affected leg. Performing leg exercises while sitting might increase the risk of dislodging a blood clot. While snug compression stockings are beneficial, the primary focus should be on elevation. Avoiding ice packs on injuries is unrelated to DVT management.

4. A client with schizophrenia taking clozapine is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Fever
• C. Weight gain
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider is B: Fever. Fever can be an indication of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition associated with clozapine. Agranulocytosis is characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cells, making the client susceptible to severe infections. Prompt reporting of fever is crucial to prevent serious complications. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A), weight gain (Choice C), and dry mouth (Choice D) are important to monitor but are not as immediately concerning as fever, which could indicate a severe adverse reaction requiring urgent medical attention.

5. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Complete blood count (CBC)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works on the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps assess its anticoagulant effect. Therapeutic levels of aPTT for clients on heparin therapy are typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, which acts on the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Complete blood count (CBC) is not specific for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

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