ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology
1. A client with a history of angina pectoris complains of substernal chest pain. The nurse checks the client's blood pressure and administers nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingually. Five minutes later, the client is still experiencing chest pain. What is the next appropriate nursing action?
- A. Administer another dose of nitroglycerin.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Have the client lie down and stay calm.
- D. Give the client aspirin 325 mg to chew.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: If chest pain persists after the first dose of nitroglycerin, it is appropriate to administer a second dose while continuing to monitor the client's response. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator commonly used to relieve angina symptoms by dilating blood vessels and increasing blood flow to the heart. Reassessing the client's response and providing a second dose may be necessary to achieve adequate pain relief and improve blood flow to the heart. Administering another dose of nitroglycerin is the next appropriate step in managing angina symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice B) may be necessary if the client's condition worsens or if there are other concerning symptoms. Having the client lie down and stay calm (Choice C) is generally recommended but addressing the ongoing chest pain takes precedence. Giving the client aspirin 325 mg to chew (Choice D) is beneficial for suspected myocardial infarction but is not the immediate action indicated for persistent angina symptoms.
2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension. What parameter should be checked before administering the medication?
- A. Apical pulse
- B. Serum calcium level
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, the healthcare provider should check the client's blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers are used to lower blood pressure, making it essential to assess the current blood pressure to ensure it is within the appropriate range for administration. Checking the apical pulse (choice A) is not the priority before administering a calcium channel blocker, as the focus should be on blood pressure. Serum calcium level (choice B) is not directly related to the administration of calcium channel blockers for hypertension. Respiratory rate (choice D) is not the primary parameter to check before administering a calcium channel blocker in this scenario.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Frequent urination
- B. Dry cough
- C. Tremors
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of enalapril that can indicate the development of angioedema or potentially life-threatening angioedema. An onset of dry cough should be reported to the provider promptly as it may require discontinuation of the medication to prevent further complications. Frequent urination, tremors, and dizziness are not typically associated with enalapril use and are less likely to be of immediate concern compared to a dry cough in this context.
4. A client has a new prescription for heparin. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory result that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin. Heparin works by prolonging the aPTT, and monitoring this parameter helps ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety in preventing clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, another anticoagulant. Platelet count is essential to assess platelet function and clotting disorders, but it is not specifically used to monitor heparin therapy.
5. The client with a diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely by the nurse?
- A. Serum calcium
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent adverse effects associated with high potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium (choice A) is not directly related to spironolactone use. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum glucose (choice D) are also not the primary laboratory values to monitor when a client is prescribed spironolactone for heart failure.
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